My teacher gave me this question as a challenge: $$ \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac1{1+\tan^a(x)} \,dx $$
It took me several days, but I did manage to solve this question using the King Property, by substituting $t=\frac{\pi}{2}-x$.
However, apparently there is an 'easier' way of doing this according to my teacher, which of you can represent the function in terms of $a$ (I am not even sure if I am saying this correctly) and show that the result will always be constant no matter what $a$ is. Essentially, if you can find an easier or simpler solution to this, I'd like to hear it. Thank you in advance.
I will put my own solution below.