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My teacher gave me this question as a challenge: $$ \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac1{1+\tan^a(x)} \,dx $$

It took me several days, but I did manage to solve this question using the King Property, by substituting $t=\frac{\pi}{2}-x$.

However, apparently there is an 'easier' way of doing this according to my teacher, which of you can represent the function in terms of $a$ (I am not even sure if I am saying this correctly) and show that the result will always be constant no matter what $a$ is. Essentially, if you can find an easier or simpler solution to this, I'd like to hear it. Thank you in advance.

I will put my own solution below.

MathMagician
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mayItakeU
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    This one's been around for a while, including the "parametric integration" method: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/605673/integrate-int-0-pi-2-frac11-tan-alphax-mathrmdx?noredirect=1 –  Jun 03 '22 at 00:03
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    Note: "King property" is likely unknown terminology to users outside of India. See https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3952365/why-is-it-called-kings-property-of-integration – GEdgar Jun 03 '22 at 00:03
  • I think the first link above is a better target (than this question) for further answers. – metamorphy Jun 03 '22 at 01:43

2 Answers2

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Use the substitution $t=\frac\pi2-x$

Hence $dx=-dt$

Substituting this into the question,

$$ \int_{\pi/2}^{0}\frac1{1+tan^a(\frac\pi2-t)}(-dt)=\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac1{1+tan^a(\frac\pi2-t)}dt $$

Using the identity (can be proven using unit circle or addition formula) $$ tan(\frac\pi2-\theta)=\frac1{tan\theta} $$

We can simplify the integral further: $$ \int_0^{\pi/2}\frac1{1+\frac1{tan^a(t)}}dt=\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac{tan^a(t)}{1+tan^a(t)}dt $$

Using the same concept as polynomial division,

$$ \int_0^\frac\pi2(1-\frac1{1+tan^a(t)})dt=\int_0^\frac\pi2dt-\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac1{1+tan^a(t)}dt $$

If we let the original integral to be $I$,

$$ I=[t]_0^{\pi/2}-I $$ $$ 2I=\frac\pi2 $$

Therefore $$ I=\frac\pi4 $$

mayItakeU
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I'm not sure that this is really "easier" than the alternative, but if you let $$f(a)=\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{1+(\tan x)^a}$$ then by differentiating under the integral with respect to $a$, we have $$f'(a)=-\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\tan^a x}{(1+\tan^a x)^2}\cdot \ln(\tan x) \cdot dx$$ Then, by substituting $x\mapsto \pi/2-x$, as in your answer, you can easily find that $f'(a)=-f'(a)$, since the term $\tfrac{\tan^a x}{(1+\tan^a x)^2}$ is unchanged by this transformation, but the term $\ln(\tan x)$ has its sign flipped. From this, we can conclude that $f'(a)=0$ everywhere, and therefore that $f(a)$ is a constant function of $a$, as stated in the question.

Is this the route you're looking for?

Franklin Pezzuti Dyer
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    The final wrap-up would be to evaluate $f(0)$ :) – Alan Jun 03 '22 at 00:01
  • Yeah, I think this is the way that I was looking for. Apparently there is an even easier way that is apparently impossible to spot for most people. – mayItakeU Jun 03 '22 at 05:55