Morning.
I had a similar post yesterday but I noticed after a good sleep tonight that whad I did there does not work. As the post says I want to show that $u^*(x) = \lim\limits_{r\to 0}\left( \sup\limits_{B_r(x)}u \right)$ is upper semicontinuous for arbitrary $u:U\to\mathbb{R}^n$ with $U\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ .
For arbitrary $y\in B_r(x) \subset U$ there is
$u(y) \leq \sup\limits_{B_r(x)}u$
and thus
$u(y) \leq \lim\limits_{r\to 0}\left( \sup\limits_{B_r(x)}u \right)$ for all $y\in B_r(x)$.
Now set $\delta := r-|y-x|$ to obtain
$\lim\limits_{\alpha\to 0}\left( \sup\limits_{B_\alpha(y)}u \right) \leq \sup\limits_{B_\delta(y)}u \leq \lim\limits_{r\to 0}\left( \sup\limits_{B_r(x)}u \right)$ from above.
As $y\in B_r(x)$ was arbitrary we get
$\limsup\limits_{y\to x}\left( \lim\limits_{\alpha\to 0}\left( \sup\limits_{B_\alpha(y)}u \right)\right) \leq \sup\limits_{y\in B_r(x)}\left( \lim\limits_{\alpha\to 0}\left( \sup\limits_{B_\alpha(y)}u\right) \right) \leq \lim\limits_{r\to 0}\left( \sup\limits_{B_r(x)}u \right) = u^*(x)$
and thus $u^*$ is upper semicontinuous.
I hope this is correct now but to be sure: is it?
Thanks along for any help!
Edit: I see that it is not true at all unfortunately as "For arbitrary $y\in B_r(x) \subset U$ there is
$u(y) \leq \sup\limits_{B_r(x)}u$
and thus
$u(y) \leq \lim\limits_{r\to 0}\left( \sup\limits_{B_r(x)}u \right)$ for all $y\in B_r(x)$." doesn't make any sense...but how could I avoid this problem with a neighbourhood of $x$ to work on that doesn't give me problems when $r$ goes to $0$?