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is this approach correct? $$\log_a b = \frac{\ln b}{\ln a} \tag{1}$$ but from the famous formula $e^{i\pi} = -1$ we can extend the domain of the natural logarithm and have $i\pi = \ln (-1)$ therefore for all real and non-zero a we can have: $$\ln(a) = \ln(|a|\frac{a}{|a|}) = \ln(|a|) + \ln(\frac{a}{|a|}) $$ for example for negative a we have: $$\ln (a) = \ln(|a|) + i\pi$$

and with the formula (1) we can extend this to all real numbers of a and b that are non-zero and the base non-equal to 1. And how can we extend this to quaternions?

gt6989b
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    Between reals and quaternions, there are complex numbers. This could interest you. – TheSilverDoe May 27 '22 at 13:54
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    Are you sure that your definition of a logarithm is well-defined? Consider this: from Euler's formula, we also know that $e^{i3\pi} = -1$. So for the value of $a$ in your example, we could just as easily have $\ln(a) = \ln(|a|) + i3\pi$. This definition of a logarithm (according to Wikipedia) is called a multi-valued fucnction, and this issue can be avoided so long as we pick a particular 'branch' of this logarithmic function. See here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principal_branch#Complex_logarithms – Matt E. May 27 '22 at 14:20
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    @MattE. yes i did not pay attention to that. in fact since $\exp (iz) = \exp(i(z + 2\pi))$ it can have infinitely values! thanks for noticing! – Ilia Varnaseri May 27 '22 at 15:13
  • @TheSilverDoe thanks! – Ilia Varnaseri May 27 '22 at 15:14

1 Answers1

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$$\log_a b = \frac{\ln b}{\ln a} \tag{1}$$ but from the famous formula $$e^{i\pi} = -1$$ we have $$i\pi = \ln (-1)$$

Rather than using formula $(1),$ aren't you just applying $\ln$ on both sides then applying the formula $$\ln e^z=z\,?$$ Unfortunately, this formula is not generally applicable for complex $z;$ in fact, $$\ln (-1)=i\pi +i2k\pi.$$

therefore for all real and non-zero a we can have: $$\ln(|a|\frac{a}{|a|}) = \ln(|a|) + \ln(\frac{a}{|a|}) $$

Unfortunately, the formula $$\ln z_1z_2=\ln z_1+\ln z_2$$ is also not generally applicable for complex $z.$

for example for negative a we have: $$\ln (a) = \ln(|a|) + i\pi$$

In fact, by the general definition of $\log,$ for $a<0,$ $$\ln (a)=\ln(-a) + i\pi +i2k\pi.$$


OP's comment:

yes i did not pay attention to that. in fact since $\exp(iz)=\exp(i(z+2π))$ it can have infinitely values!

Actually, $\exp(z)$ typically denotes a single-valued function, while $e^z$ is either single-valued or multivalued depending on the context; in Euler's formula above, it is strongly conventional to read $e^{i\pi}$ as single-valued.

ryang
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