Suppose $f:\mathbb{B}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ is continuous (here $\mathbb{B}^n$ refers to the $n$-dimensional unit ball). Suppose also that its restriction $g := f|_{\mathbb{S}^{n-1}}$ does not have $0$ in its image, and $g:\mathbb{S}^{n-1} \to \mathbb{R}^n \setminus\{0\}$ is homotopic to the identity map.
Is it necessarily true that $f(x) = 0$ for some $x\in \mathbb{B}^n$?
I have proved it in the affirmative below. I'm hoping there may be a proof that uses only elementary results (i.e. avoids Borsuk-Ulam). I used this result in the corrected proof of this question about Chebyshev sets.