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Let $p:X \to Y$ be a perfect map. Then: $(2)$ If $X$ is regular, so also is $Y$.

Dugundji’s proof:

Given $y\in U$ in $Y$, there is by 1.5(b) an open $V \subseteq X$ with $p^{-1}(y) \subseteq V\subseteq \overline{V} \subseteq p^{-1} (U)$. Since $p$ is a closed map, we find a nbhd $W \supseteq y$ with $p^{-1}(y) \subseteq p^{-1}(W) \subseteq V$; then $W\subseteq p(\overline{V}) \subseteq U$, and since $p(\overline{V})$ is closed, $y\in W\subseteq \overline{W} \subseteq p(\overline{V}) \subseteq U$.

Question: I don’t understand first line of proof, specifically $p^{-1}(y) \subseteq V$. In second line, $W\subseteq p(\overline{V})$.

Edit: let $\{y\}$ be a singleton set in $Y$. Since $p$ is surjective, $\exists x\in X$ such that $p(x)=y$. Since $X$ is $T_1$, $\{x\}$ is closed in $X$. $p$ is a closed map. So $p(\{x\})=\{y\}$ is closed in $Y$. Hence $Y$ is $T_1$.

user264745
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2 Answers2

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Here is a separate proof:-

Take a point $y\in Y$ and a closed set $C$ in $Y$. Then let $p^{-1}(y)=K$ and $p^{-1}(C)=F$ .

Then $K$ is a compact set and $F$ is a closed set such that $K$ and $F$ are disjoint.

We pick a point $x\in K$ and as $X$ is regular we can find disjoint open sets $U_{x}$ and $V_{x}$ such that $x\in U_{x}$ and $F\subset V_{x}$ .

Then we consider the cover of $K$ by open sets $\{U_{x}\}_{x\in K}$ .

As $K$ is compact there exist a finite subcover $U_{x_1},....,U_{x_n}$ of $K$.

and correspondingly open sets $V_{x_1},...,V_{x_n}$ such that $F\subset V_{x_i}$.

Then $\displaystyle\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}U_{x_i}$ is an open set containing $K$ and $\displaystyle\bigcap_{i=1}^{n}V_{x_i}$ is an open set containing $F$ .

We claim that they are disjoint.

if $x\in\displaystyle\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}U_{x_i}$ then $x\in U_{x_{i_{0}}}$ for some $i_{0}$ . Then it means that $x\notin V_{x_{i_{0}}}\implies x\notin \displaystyle\bigcap_{i=1}^{n}V_{x_i}$ .

Thus we have an open set $U=\displaystyle\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}U_{x_i}$ and an open set $V=\bigcap_{i=1}^{n}V_{x_i}$ .

Then $y\in p(U)$ and $C\subset p(V)$.

Now the set $X\setminus U$ is closed and hence $p(X\setminus U)$ is closed and henc e $Y\setminus p(X\setminus U)$ is open . and $y\notin p(X\setminus U)$ as $p^{-1}(y)\subset U$ . hence $y\in Y\setminus(p(X\setminus U))$.

And consider the open set $Y\setminus(p(X\setminus V))$ . Then we claim that $C\subseteq Y\setminus(p(X\setminus V))$ .

Let $z\in C$ and if possible let $z\in p(X\setminus V)$ . Then $z=p(x)$ for some $x\in X\setminus V$. But $p^{-1}(C)\subset V$ implies that $x\in V$ which is a contradiction.

Then we also claim that $\hat{U}= Y\setminus(p(X\setminus U))$ and $\hat{V}=Y\setminus(p(X\setminus V))$ are disjoint .

Let $w\in\hat{U}\implies w\notin p(X\setminus U)\implies w\in p(U)\subset p(X\setminus V)\implies w\notin\hat{V}$

Thus $\hat{U}$ and $\hat{V}$ are disjoint open sets such that $y\in\hat{U}$ and $C\subset\hat{V}$.

I should also mention that some books take the definition of Regular to be a space satisfying $T_{1}$ and $T_{3}$. In that case you have that since $p$ is a closed map and $\{x\}\subset X$ is closed , you have $\{p(x)\}$ is closed. It now follows that $Y$ is $T_{1}$ as $p$ is a surjection.

  • This was my first approach to this problem. You can make proof clean by proving a standard result for closed map. You explicitly wrote a nbhd of $y$ such that inverse image of that nbhd under $p$ is subset of $U$. Similarly $\exists$ a nbhd of $C$ such that inverse image of that nbhd under $p$ is subset of $V$. This is precisely chapter 3, theorem 11.2(a). I think $\overline{U}$ and $\overline{V}$ are not open, no? – user264745 May 13 '22 at 12:17
  • Yes $\bar{U}$ and $\bar{V}$ are open as I have said in the 6th line from botton. I have not read Dugundji. When I studied topology our text was Viro et al . – Mr.Gandalf Sauron May 13 '22 at 13:09
  • I’m so sorry. I thought it represent closure. My mistake. – user264745 May 13 '22 at 13:11
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    @user264745 oops yeah sorry . It was bad notation. I should have used something like $\hat{u}$. I have edited. Thanks!! – Mr.Gandalf Sauron May 13 '22 at 14:04
  • It’s fine. You forgot to write $V=\bigcap_{i=1}^{n} V_{x_i}$. And in fourth line from top, I think following statement is more accurate: ${ U_x| x\in K}$ is an open cover of $K$. – user264745 May 13 '22 at 14:10
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    Thanks I have edited. – Mr.Gandalf Sauron May 13 '22 at 14:15
  • Wait a minute. We didn’t show $Y$ is $T_1$. Munkres defined regular space as $T_3$ and $T_1$. – user264745 May 13 '22 at 14:25
  • I suspected that and added an edit a while ago . Look at the last paragraph. – Mr.Gandalf Sauron May 13 '22 at 15:26
  • I don’t think that proof is correct because $p(x)$ is closed, not ${ p(x)}$ and we didn’t show singleton set in $Y$ is closed. – user264745 May 13 '22 at 15:55
  • @user264745 1. a singleton ${x}$ is closed in $X$. 2. Hence the image of this set ${p(x)}$ is closed in Y. 3. Any point in $Y$ can be written as $p(x)$ for some $x\in X$ due to surjectivity. Hence any ${y}$ is closed as it is the image set of some singleton ${x}$ which is closed. – Mr.Gandalf Sauron May 13 '22 at 15:57
  • Ahh… still not convinced. Image of ${x}$ is $p(x)$ not ${p(x)}$, both have different meaning, I think. And image of ${x}$ need not be singleton. – user264745 May 13 '22 at 16:03
  • Dude....Now you are speaking blasphemy......Recall the definition of a function. If the image of a singleton is not a unique point then the map is not even a function – Mr.Gandalf Sauron May 13 '22 at 16:05
  • I’m stupid. I’m sorry. – user264745 May 13 '22 at 16:05
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    Lol. Happens to all of us !!! – Mr.Gandalf Sauron May 13 '22 at 16:06
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$p^{-1}(y)$ is compact, $p^{-1}(U)$ is open and $p^{-1}(y)\subseteq p^{-1}(U)$. In regular space these properties imply the existence of an open set $V$ such that $p^{-1}(y)\subseteq V \subseteq \overline V \subseteq p^{-1}(U)$. [This is 1.5 (c) in the book].

Since $p$ is surjective, $p^{-1}(W) \subseteq V$ implies $W \subseteq p(V)\subseteq p(\overline V)$.