Let $T:\mathbb{R}^{3}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{3}$ be a linear transformation. I'm trying to prove that there exists a T-invariant subspace $W\subset \mathbb{R}^3$ so that $\dim W=2$.
How can I prove it? Any advice?
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1Maybe we can take as a starter $T$ over $\mathbb C$? There the Jordan decomposition applies. I think this must have something to do with the fact that a real polynomial of degree $=3$ must have either one or three roots. – awllower Jul 16 '13 at 11:09
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@CameronBuie I tried to find a linear operator T with the standard base of $\mathbb{R}^3$ and I got stuck in showing that if $v\in W$ then $T(v)\in W$. – Jul 16 '13 at 11:30
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@awllower Thanks for your answer, I did not actually got the connection between what you proposed to the question, can you please explain in a little more detail? – Jul 16 '13 at 11:31
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@tracy_g Do you want to show that for a special operator $T$ or in general? I don't get what you mean by "tried to find a linear operator...". – m_l Jul 16 '13 at 11:35
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@m_l You are correct, I actually need to prove that an invariant subspace $W$ exists for some (not special) $T$ operator. What I did is probably not the right way. You have any idea how to do it? – Jul 16 '13 at 11:42
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@tracy_g See my answer below. I edited in some more details. – m_l Jul 16 '13 at 12:01
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@m_l Whoops, you're right. Comment removed. – Nick Peterson Jul 16 '13 at 13:04
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@m_l Thank you for your answer and your effort It really helped me, I have looked into it in depth but there are a two questions I must ask:
- What you did with the $ker$ of each factor of the minimal polynomial..isn't it simply the "Primary Decomposition Theorem" ?
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@m_l 2. Assuming each of the kernels of factors of the minimal polynomial is T-invariant subspace, how can I prove that the kernel of the quadratic irreducible factor is 2-dimensional? – Jul 16 '13 at 22:19
4 Answers
Let $F$ be any field, $V$ a finite-dimensional $F$-vector space, and $T: V \rightarrow V$ an $F$-linear map.
For $v \in V$, there is a unique monic polynomial $P_v(t)$ of least degree such that $P_v(T)v = 0$: this is the local minimal polynomial at $v$. The degree of $P_v$ is the least natural number $d$ such that $v, Tv, T^2v,\ldots,T^d v$ are linearly dependent. Therefore it is equal to the dimension of $[v] = \operatorname{span} \{T_i v\}_{i=0}^{\infty}$: notice that $[v]$ is the minimal $T$-invariant subspace of $V$ containing $v$.
Thus a reasonable strategy for showing that $T$ has a $2$-dimensional invariant subspace is to try to show that there is a vector $v \in V$ such that $P_v$ has degree $2$.
Now here is a helpful fact: the set of all local minimal polynomials $P_v$ of vectors $v$ is precisely the set of monic divisors of the ("global") minimal polynomial $P$ of $v$. To see this, first one shows that $P = P_v$ for some $v$ ("Local Attainment Theorem"), and then one checks that for any $v \in V$ and any monic polynomial $f$ dividing $P_v$, $P_{f(T)v} = \frac{P_v}{f}$: for proofs, see Lemma 1.15 and Theorem 1.16 of these notes.
Now I claim the following result, which is stronger than what the OP asked for.
If $F = \mathbb{R}$ and $\operatorname{dim} V \geq 2$, then $V$ has a $2$-dimensional $T$-invariant subspace.
Proof: Let $P$ be the minimal polynomial of $T$.
Case 1: Suppose $P$ has degree $1$. Then $P = (t-\alpha)$ for some $\alpha \in \mathbb{R}$ and $T$ is just the scalar endomorphism $v \mapsto \alpha v$. Then every subspace is $T$-invariant, so because $\dim V \geq 2$, there is a $2$-dimensional invariant subspace.
Casae 2: Suppose $P$ has degree at least $2$. By the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, the irreducible factors of any real polynomial all have degree either $1$ or $2$. If there is a degree $2$ irreducible factor $f$, then as above there is a vector $v$ such that $P_v = f$ and thus $[v]$ is a $2$-dimensional $T$-invariant subspace. Otherwise $P$ is a product of linear factors, and since it has degree at least $2$, again it has a monic divisor $f$ of degree $2$ and thus again a $2$-dimensional $T$-invariant subspace $[v]$.
Final Remark: The proof of the displayed fact above uses only the following property of $\mathbb{R}$: the only possible degrees of irreducible polynomials $f \in \mathbb{R}[t]$ are $1$ and $2$. The fields $F$ with this property are precisely the algebraically closed fields (the only possible degree is $1$) and the real-closed fields, characterized, for instance, by: $F$ is not algebraically closed but $F[t]/(t^2+1)$ is).
Post-Final Remark: The "Local Attainment Theorem" is proved on p. 10 of my notes. The proof is not so difficult but uses a little more algebra of polynomials than might be common in a linear algebra course. So I wanted to mention an alternate approach which works over any infinite field ($\mathbb{R}$ is infinite). Namely, for any proper monic divisor $f$ of the global minimal polynomial, the (invariant) subspace $V_f$ of all vectors $v$ such that $f(T)v = 0$ must be proper: if it were all of $V$ then we've found a smaller degree polynomial such that $f(T) = 0$. There are only finitely many monic divisors of $P$. Since a vector space over an infinite field cannot be a finite union of proper subspaces -- a fact which is not hard to prove in general but is almost obvious over $\mathbb{R}$ -- we see that in fact "most" vectors have local minimal polynomial equal to $P$.

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Wonderful. After reading this answer, I feeld like that I have never learned anything about linear algebra! Thanks for that and for the good note as well. :) – awllower Jul 17 '13 at 09:02
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Thank you for your answer I really liked the level of detail and I appreciate your help! – Jul 17 '13 at 09:04
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@awllower: Thanks. I was motivated to write those notes on invariant subspaces about two months ago when I read through Axler's text. I liked his approach but thought it could be taken farther, and in particular I liked the idea of emphasizing "local minimal polynomials". I checked around and such things appear in many papers (more usually under the name "annihilator polynomial"; I found exactly one arxiv paper which uses "local minimal polynomial" as I have above), but I haven't found it in any undergraduate level text.... – Pete L. Clark Jul 17 '13 at 19:28
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No wonder I have never seen such an idea before. Indeed this is quite an ingenious idea; maybe it should be appreciated by more students of linear algebra! :) – awllower Jul 18 '13 at 00:58
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I'd just like to add that I think this answer is great as well! (Unfortunately, I can't up-vote it because I've exhausted my daily quota of votes; however, I'll remember to return here tomorrow!) – Amitesh Datta Jul 19 '13 at 10:06
Hint:
Consider the minimal polynomial $\mu_T$ of $T$. If it has degree $1$ or $2$, what do you know about $T$?
If it has degree $3$, factor it into $\mu_T = pq$. What do you know about $p(T)$?
Kernels, eigenspaces and complements may help you.
Edit: Also, I'm curious where this question comes from. Have you considered the example $$T = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}?$$ Note that this is already in Jordan normal form. Now choose $v := e_2$ as the second standard basis vector. The image $Tv$ lies in $W := \langle e_1, e_2 \rangle$ and $e_1$ is an eigenvector. So $W$ is $T$-invariant of dimension $2$.
This works similarly in general. If the minimal polynomial splits (into linear factors), the Jordan normal form gives you the answer: Some generalized eigenspace, or a subspace thereof (or, in the diagonalisable case, a union of eigenspaces).
The only other thing that can happen is that the minimal polynomial contains an irreducible factor $f$ of degree $2$. In this case, consider $\operatorname{ker} f(T)$.
Edit2: More details.
When you have the Jordan form, you can read off several invariant subspaces. First of all, eigenspaces are obviously invariant. If you have more than one eigenspace or an eigenspace of dimension $> 1$, just choose the span of suitable eigenvectors as your $T$-invariant space.
Now, if you have a Jordan block of higher dimension, you observe how $T$ acts on the corresponding basis vectors: in my example, $e_3$ is mapped into $\langle e_2, e_3 \rangle$, $e_2$ is mapped into $\langle e_1, e_2 \rangle$. Thus, $\langle e_1 \rangle$, $\langle e_1, e_2\rangle$ and $\langle e_1, e_2, e_3 \rangle$ are all $T$-invariant. So $\langle e_1, e_2 \rangle$ is the $2$-dimensional $T$-invariant space you're looking for.
This covers the cases when the characteristic polynomial splits. If it doesn't (over $\mathbb{R}$), you need to consider the kernel $\operatorname{ker} f(T)$ where $f$ denotes the irreducible factor of degree $2$, as I wrote above. Choose, for example, $$T = \begin{pmatrix} -1 & -2 & -2 \\ 1 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$$ and see what happens.
Edit3: Expanding on my (hopefully) last comment to this answer:
The minimal polynomial of the example above is $(x-1)(x^2+1)$. Moreover, we have $$\operatorname{ker} ( T^2 + 1 ) = \langle e_1, e_2 \rangle \text{ and } \operatorname{ker} ( T - 1 ) = \langle e_2 - e_3 \rangle.$$ Choose any vector in the first space, say $v_1 := e_1$. Then choose $v_2 := Tv_1 = -e_1+e_2$. We find $Tv_2 = -e_1$. Thus, choosing the basis $B := (v_1,v_2,e_2-e_3)$, we obtain $$ {}^BT^B = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$$ and $\langle v_1, v_2 \rangle$ is clearly a $T$-invariant subspace of dimension $2$.
Note also that clearly $K := \operatorname{ker}(p(T))$ is a $T$-invariant subspace for any polynomial $p$:
If $x \in K$, then $p(T) Tx = Tp(T)x = 0$, so $Tx \in K$. We just needed to find a polynomial $p$ such that $\operatorname{ker}(p(T))$ has dimension $2$. (We do not always find such a polynomial. We do, however, always find suitable $T$-invariant subspaces of the kernel.)

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I didn't really understand the hint, this subject is quite new to me, can you please explain in a little more detail? – Jul 16 '13 at 11:24
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What is your background? I.e. how much linear algebra do you know? Are you familiar with eigenspaces, basis changes or the Jordan decomposition? – m_l Jul 16 '13 at 11:27
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Yes, I have knowledge in eignvalues and eignvectors, also in Jordan normal forms, etc. – Jul 16 '13 at 11:38
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Thanks for your answer. Can you please explain why did you chose this specific $T$ ? – Jul 16 '13 at 12:03
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Because it has the simplest minimal polynomial: $x-1$. And we can see how the Jordan normal form affords invariant subspaces here. But really, it is just an example to illustrate the general method. – m_l Jul 16 '13 at 12:05
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Is the $x-1$ in multiplicity of 3 and then we get that Jordan form? Can you explain what is actually the connection between finding a general Jordan form and the existence of an invariant subspace for $T$, I'm sorry I didn't understand it completely.. – Jul 16 '13 at 12:40
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I think, by considering $\text{Ker}(f(T))$, in the case the minimal polynomial of $T$ contains an irreducible factor $f$ of degree $2$, you mean that the complex conjugate pair of roots of $f$ are then mapped to eigen-values of $f(T)$ by $f$. Hence there are two eigen-values of $f(T)$ which are $=0$. So the kernel is then a $T$-invariant subspece of dimension $=2$? Thanks for the answer thus. – awllower Jul 16 '13 at 14:26
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Yes, basically. Over $\mathbb{C}$, we could choose an eigenvector basis of $W := \operatorname{ker}(f(T))$. Over $\mathbb{R}$, this is still an invariant subspace of dimension $2$. We can choose a basis such that the corresponding representation of $T|_W$ is the companion matrix of the irreducible factor $f$. It is then clear that $W$ is indeed $T$-invariant. – m_l Jul 16 '13 at 14:34
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@m_l Thank you for your answer and your effort It really helped me, I have looked into it in depth but there are a two questions I must ask:
- What you did with the $ker$ of each factor of the minimal polynomial..isn't it simply the "Primary Decomposition Theorem" ?
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- Assuming each of the kernels of factors of the minimal polynomial is T-invariant subspace, how can I prove that the kernel of the quadratic irreducible factor is 2-dimensional?
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@tracy_g Let me try to address your questions: for (I), I am not familiar with the primary decomposition, but I surmise that it is not so relevant. For (II), consider $T$ as an operator over $\mathbb C$, then $f$, the irreducible factor of degree $2$, splits into linear factors, so that there are two distinct complex eigen-values of $T$. Then there are two linearly independent eigen-vectors of $T$, $v_1$ and $v_2$ corresponding respectively to the two complex eigen-values of $T$. So $T(v_1)=\lambda_1 v_1$ and $T(v_2)=\lambda_2 v_2$. Hence $f(T)(v_1')=0\cdot v_1'$, $f(T)(v_2')=0\cdot v_2'$... – awllower Jul 17 '13 at 02:55
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... Where $v_1'$ is the real part of the complex vector $v_1$, and similarly for $v_2'$. This way you find two linearly independent (why?) eigen-vectors of $f(T)$ corresponing to $0$. This tells us that the multiplicity of the eigen-value $0$ with respect to $f(T)$ is $2$. And... so what? – awllower Jul 17 '13 at 02:57
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@tracy_g awllower explained it nicely. And yes, this is a primary decomposition, although I'm not familiar with a theorem of that name. Please also read Pete Clark's answer. It uses the same ideas as mine, but it is much more straightforward. – m_l Jul 17 '13 at 06:28
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@m_l Thank you both! for your answers! I understand it now. I really appreciate your help! – Jul 17 '13 at 09:06
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And I think Pete's arguments are far better than mine: it is simply ingenious, if it is not the case that I am too stupid. :P – awllower Jul 17 '13 at 09:18
If you've not learned about minimal polynomials or Jordan normal form, here's a simple proof involving the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem. Let $T : \mathbb{R}^{n} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{n}$ be a linear map and $A = [T]_{\text{std}}$ be the matrix representation of $T$ in the standard basis. Take the set $\{v,Tv\}$. If this is linearly dependent for all $v \in \mathbb{R}^{n}$, then we can choose any $\{v_{1},v_{2}\} \subseteq \mathbb{R}^{n}$ such that $v_{1}$ and $v_{2}$ are linearly independent. Then, $\operatorname{span}\{v_{1},v_{2}\}$ is the required $2$-dimensional subspace.
If $\{v,Tv\}$ is not linearly independent for some $v \in \mathbb{R}^{n}$, choose that $v$.
According to Cayley-Hamilton Theorem, we have the characteristic polynomial of A, $p(\lambda)$ such that $p(A)=0 \implies p(A)v=0 \forall v \in \mathbb{R}^{n}$. $p(A)$ can be factored into irreducible polynomials of degree $1$ or $2$ by the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra. Thus, there is some linear or quadratic polynomial $q(\lambda)$ such that $q(\lambda)$ is a factor of $p(\lambda)$ and $q(A)v = 0$. If $q(A)$ is linear, we are done. If $q(A)$ is quadratic, there are some $s,r \in \mathbb{R}$ such that \begin{equation} \begin{split} & A^{2}v + sAv + rv = 0\\ &\quad\implies A^{2}v = -sAv-rv \\ &\quad\implies T^{2}v = -sTv-rv \label{eq:1} \end{split} \end{equation} Now, for some $v' \in \operatorname{span}\{v,Tv\}$, $v' = av + bTv$ for some $a,b \in \mathbb{R}$. So, \begin{equation} \begin{split} T(v') & = T(av + bTv) \\ & = aTv + bT^{2}v \\ & = aTv + b(-sTv-rv) \\ & = (a-bs)Tv - rbv \in \operatorname{span}\{v,Tv\} \\ \end{split} \end{equation} Thus $\operatorname{span}\{v, Tv\}$ is the required 2-dimensional invariant subspace.

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Just look at its Jordan nomal form. If there're three Jordan blocks of dimension 1, the result is clear. If you have one Jordan block of dimension 1 and one of dimension 2, then then the result is obvious, too.
Thus, we need to study the case where you matrix is a Jordan block of dimension 3, i.e. $$\begin{pmatrix}\lambda&1&0\\0&\lambda&1\\0&0&\lambda\end{pmatrix}.$$Note, that in this case $\lambda$ is real. Clearly, the subspace $span\{e_1,e_2\}$ is invariant, which finalises the proof.
An edit to reflect the questions in comments
Obviously, we talk about the real Jordan normal form as described in this wiki article.
Let's take a look at possible eigenvalue structure our matrix can have.
First of all, it has at least one real eigenvalue (because the dimension is odd). This leaves us with two possible choices: either other eigenvalues are real, or they are complex conjugate. If they are complex conjugate (let's call them $a\pm ib$), then there exist two eigenvectors in $\mathbb C^3$, noted by $v_\pm$ respectively. It's easy to show that, in fact $\bar v_- =v_+$ (i.e. they differ only by the sign at their imaginary part). Let's look what happens when we apply $A$ to $\Re v_+$ and to $\Im v_+$:
$$(a+ib)v_+=Av_+=A\Re v_+ +iA\Im v_+ = (a+ib)( \Re v_+ +i \Im v_+)=a\Re v_+ -b \Im v_+ +i(a\Im v_+ +b\Re v_+ ),$$ hence $$A\Re v_+ =a\Re v_+ -b \Im v_+,\quad A\Im v_+= a\Im v_+ +b\Re v_+,$$ so $span \{ \Im v_+, \Re v_+\} $ is an invariant subspace.
In the case where two other eigenvalues are real, too, we can safely apply the usual Jordan normal form (upper-triangular) and deduce the necessary result.

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1The existence of the Jordan Normal Form depends on the existence of all the roots of the characteristic polynomial in the ground field. This may not be the case with a non-algebraically closed field. – DonAntonio Jul 16 '13 at 12:13
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Not necessarily. Depending on what you define as "Jordan normal form", you may admit companion matrices of irreducible polynomials of degree $> 1$ as (part of) Jordan blocks. In this sense the answer is perfectly fine. Incidentally, this is what I originally got to know as the Jordan normal form. – m_l Jul 16 '13 at 12:20
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@DonAntonio Can you explain what is actually the connection between finding a general Jordan form and the existence of an invariant subspace for $T$, I'm sorry I didn't understand it completely.. – Jul 16 '13 at 12:37
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@tracy_g , it is not necessarily necessary (oh, dear: I should regret this line!). I just pointed out something about the above answer. – DonAntonio Jul 16 '13 at 16:48
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@m_l , as far as I know the minimal necessary condition for the existence of the JFN is that the field must contain all the matrix's eigenvalues. I never heard anything about the companion matrices being included as JFN. Do you have some reference(s)? Thanks. – DonAntonio Jul 16 '13 at 16:49
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@DonAntonio Mainly the linear algebra lectures I attended during my studies. I agree that the common definition of the JNF does not include these cases. – m_l Jul 16 '13 at 20:08
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@DonAntonio I have seen some papers saying that JNFs work for perfect fields, i.e. whether or not it contains all the eigen-values of $T$, it must be ensured that the splitting field of the characteristic polynomial of $T$ must be separable. But I do not know either about the details. Maybe some search can reveal something? In any case, I shall try to find a reference, and study it with you hopefully. :) – awllower Jul 17 '13 at 03:00
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1@awllower, that could be a further condition, perhaps because they don't want to work with irreducible polynomials with multiple roots. I can't say. Anyway, it'll be my pleasure to work with you over this if you can find a reference. – DonAntonio Jul 17 '13 at 07:34