I have tried to prove that if $H$, $N$ are two normal subgroups of a group G such that $G/N \cong G/H$, then $N \cong H$. I think that it is not possible, but I can't find a counterexample. What is an illustrative example for to prove that $N \ncong H$?
Asked
Active
Viewed 215 times
1
-
Hint: consider some $G$ of order $8$ and $N$ and $H$ of order $4$. – verret May 05 '22 at 22:05
2 Answers
3
Let $G=\mathbb Z/4\mathbb Z\times \mathbb Z/\mathbb 2\mathbb Z$. Since $G$ is abelian, every subgroup is normal. Let $N_1=\mathbb Z/4\mathbb Z$ be the first direct factor in the definition of $G$, and let $N_2=\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z\times \mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z$ come from taking the direct product of a subgroup of the first factor and the second. Clearly, $N_1\not\cong N_2$. However, $G/N_1$ and $G/N_2$ are both groups of order $2$, and thus isomorphic.

Carl Schildkraut
- 32,931
1
How about $$G = \mathbb Z \times \mathbb Z \times \mathbb Z \times \cdots$$
$$H = \mathbb Z \times \{0\} \times \{0\} \times \cdots$$
$$N = \mathbb Z \times \mathbb Z \times \{0\} \times \cdots$$
Then $H$ and $N$ are not isomorphic, but $G/N \cong G \cong G/H$.

D_S
- 33,891