I'm trying to prove this interesting result. Could you verify if my attempt is fine?
Let $(X_i, d_i)_{i=1}^n$ be a finite collection of metric spaces. Let $p \in [1, \infty]$ and $\| \cdot \|_p$ be the $p$-norm on $\mathbb R^n$. Consider $D_p$ defined on $X := X_1 \times \cdots \times X_n$ by $$ D_p ((x_1, \ldots, x_n), (y_1, \ldots, y_n)) := \|(d_1(x_1, y_1), \ldots , d_n (x_n, y_n))\|_p. $$
Then $D_p$ is a metric. All norms in a finite-dimensional vector space are equivalent, so all $D_p$ for $p \in [1 , \infty]$ are equivalent and thus induce the same topology $\tau$. Let $\tau_i$ be the topology on $X_i$ induced from metric $d_i$.
Theorem: $\tau$ coincides with the product topology $\tau'$ of $\tau_1, \ldots, \tau_n$.
I post my proof separately as below answer. If other people post an answer, of course I will happily accept theirs. Otherwise, this allows me to subsequently remove this question from unanswered list.
Update: The case of countably infinite cartesian product of metric spaces is discuss here.