If $f$,$g$ are entire functions such that and $g′(z)=f(g(z))$ everywhere, then show that $f$ is linear or $g$ is constant.
This claim was mentioned without proof in this related question (Applications of the Little and Great Theorems of Picard). I am unable to prove this.
One way might be to show that $f$ is injective by using Picard's Little Theorem - but I have no idea how to proceed.