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Suppose that $f’’(x)$ is bounded above on $(0, +\infty)$ and $\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}f(x)=0$. Prove that $\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}f’(x)=0$.

This is my solution:
Consider $h(x)=e^xf(x)$ $\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}f(x)=\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty} \frac{h(x)}{e^x}=\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty} \frac{h’(x)}{(e^x)’}$ (using L’Hospital’s rule) $=\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}[f(x)+f’(x)]$ $\Leftrightarrow 0=0+\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty} f’(x)$ hence $\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}f’(x)=0$.

Actually, I feel that my solution is not really correct. I even haven’t used the condition “ f’’(x) is bounded above”. Can someone help me review and point me the right direction to handle this problem? Thank in advanced.

Analyn_a
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  • I don't understand your first equality, and why are you allowed to use l'Hopital in the 3rd equality ? this is wrong a priori... – Surb Apr 15 '22 at 08:12
  • This question has been already answered in this forum (using Taylor series expansion).. Link: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/396707/if-fx-to-0-as-x-to-infty-and-f-is-bounded-show-that-fx-to0-as-x – Dr. Sundar Apr 15 '22 at 08:18

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