The problem is to show that $q \rightarrow r$ is a conclusion of the premises $$(p\wedge t) \rightarrow (r \vee s),\\q \rightarrow (u \wedge t),\\u \rightarrow p,\\\neg s.$$
Why is the following answer false?
Assume that $q$ is true.
- By the modus ponens, we conclude that $u \wedge t$ is valid.
- By simplification rule, $u$ and $t$ are valid, respectively.
- $p \wedge t$ is valid by conjunction
- By modus ponens, $r\vee s$ is valid.
- $r$ is valid by disjunctive syllogism.
- We conclude $q \rightarrow r$ is valid since $q$ and $r$ are valid.
I think that 1) and 6) are problematic. If so, why?
Do we need to consider the case $q$=False?