I am attempting to prove that:
$gcd(n^2-100n, 2n+1) = gcd(n-100, 201)$
To do so, I'm making use of the Euclidean algorithm, but I'm not getting to any result that I find particularly useful in demonstrating the equality. When I divide the terms on the LHS, I arrive at a remainder of $\frac{201}{4}$, whereas the RHS yields $\frac{n}{201} - \frac{100}{201}$. I have other incomprehensible calculations that I don't think would add much to the post. Any suggestions would be appreciated, I'm sure the solution is something rather trivial that I'm botching up.
$$\begin{align} (2n!+!1,n^2-100n) &= (2n!+!1,,\color{#c00}2^2(n^2-100n))\ \ \ {\rm by}\ \ (2n!+!1,\color{#c00}2)=1\ &= (2n!+!1,,(\color{#0a0}{2n})^2-200(\color{#0a0}{2n}))\ &= (2n!+!1,,(\color{#0a0}{-1})^2!-200(\color{#0a0}{-1}))\ \ {\rm by}\ \ \color{#0a0}{2n\equiv -1}\pmod{2n+1}\ &= (2n!+!1,,201) \end{align}$$
Generally this shows $,(2n!+!1,p(n)) = (2n!+!1, 2^k p(-1/2))$ where $k = \deg p,$ and $,p(x),$ is any polynomial with integer coef's.
– Bill Dubuque Apr 08 '22 at 08:59