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This is an exercise assigned by my prof, for which I need some help. If $G$ is a group of order $16$ with a normal subgroup $N$ of order $4$, why for every $a, b \in G$ we have that $ab=ban$ for some $n \in N$ ?

The order of the quotient is $4$, so is abelian, then if $a, b \in G$ we have that $aNbN=bNaN$ and then?

Shaun
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Rick88
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1 Answers1

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By Lagrange's Theorem, $|G/N|=|G|/|N|=16/4=4$. Every group of order four is abelian. Therefore,

$$\begin{align} (ab)N&=(aN)(bN)\\ &=(bN)(aN)\\ &=(ba)N \end{align}$$

for all $a,b\in G$. But this means $ab=(ab)e\in (ab)N=(ba)N$ (because $e\in N$ since $N\unlhd G$), which implies there exists an $n\in N$ with $ab=ban$.

Shaun
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