I asked here a number theory related question and got an answer. However, I am still having problems with understanding the following identity (which should hold for every $k\in \mathbb{N}_0$):
$$\prod_{p\in\mathbb{P}\cap\left[2{,}\ x\right]}^{ }\sum_{j=0}^k \frac{1}{p^j}=\sum_{i_2{,}\ i_3{,}\ \dots{,}\ i_n \in [0, \ k]}^{ }\frac{1}{2^{i_2}\cdot3^{i_3}\dots\cdot n^{i_n}}, $$
where $ \mathbb{P} \cap [2, x]=\left\{2, 3, \dots, n \right\} $ is the set of primes less than or equal to $x\ge 2$.
On some hand-waving level, I believe this statement, but I would like to see some rigorous reasoning (in math notation) which shows that LHS is the same as RHS. I tried with mathematical induction, but the induction step becomes too difficult. If the LHS is evaluated only "in one's mind" and using verbal description, one makes easily mistakes or wrong assumptions. That's why I would like more careful justifications.
In general, how to deal with this kind of product of sums (as on the LHS)?