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We need to consider it as improper integral, and am pretty sure it is R.I . I got a hint that I could use an alternating test to prove it,but not sure how. Is it enough to show the integral is finite? any help would be appreciated. Thanks

Ben jemiar
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  • To be Riemann integrable, it is necessary that the function be bounded. See https://math.stackexchange.com/q/610054/148510 – RRL Mar 29 '22 at 18:52
  • It exists as an improper Riemann integral. See https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1948873/improper-integral-of-sin1-x-x-from-0-to-1-vs-lebesgue-integral – B. S. Thomson Mar 29 '22 at 18:55

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