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Given $\gcd(a, b) = 1$, calculate $d =\gcd(a^2b^2, a^2 + ab + b^2)$ in terms of $a$ and $b$.

I have tried some manipulations of the terms arriving to some expressions such as that $d$ divides $a^4 + b^4$ or that $d$ divide s $(a+b)^4$ but those haven't given me much help. I have also tried dividing the problem in cases: $d$ divides $a$ but not $b$, $d$ divides $a$ and $b$, $d$ doesn't divide neither $a$ or $b$, etc

The first statements come from:

$d\vert a^2(a^2+ab+b^2) - (a^2b^2) = a^4 +a^3b$

$d\vert b^2(a^2+ab+b^2) - (a^2b^2) = ab^3 +b^4$

$d\vert ab(a^2+ab+b^2) - (a^2b^2) = a^3b+ab^3$

$d\vert a^4+a^3b - (a^3b+ab^3) + ab^3 +b^4= a^4 +b^4$

$d\vert a^4 +b^4= (a+b)^4-4(a^3b+ab^3)-6a^2b^2 \to d\vert (a+b)^4$

xImperiak
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1 Answers1

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It is easier in such problems to consider first the case when $d=p$ is a prime number (instead of an arbitary postive integer).

Indeed, suppose that $p\mid\gcd(a^2b^2,a^2+ab+b^2)$. Then, $p\mid a^2b^2$ and $p\mid a^2+ab+b^2$. Can you now find out for which prime $p$ it is possible given that $\gcd(a,b)=1$?

richrow
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  • From this I can only assure that $d$ can't be prime, but how would I solve for an arbitrary natural number? – xImperiak Mar 28 '22 at 09:15
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    Hence, there is no prime number $p$ that divides $\gcd(a^2b^2,a^2+ab+b^2)$, right? – richrow Mar 28 '22 at 09:45
  • Oooh, I see. Thank you – xImperiak Mar 28 '22 at 09:46
  • Is it that now we can say any combination kf primes numbers will also not work hence it will cover all possible cases @richrow – ProblemDestroyer Mar 28 '22 at 15:28
  • Yes, because if there isn't any prime that divides the gcd, any composite number won't work because it is always divided by some prime. Therefore, 1 is the only possible solution. – xImperiak Mar 28 '22 at 16:16
  • Please strive not to add more dupe answers to dupes of FAQs, cf. recent site policy announcement here. – Bill Dubuque Mar 28 '22 at 23:16
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    @BillDubuque To be honest, I don't think that this question is a duplicate. From my point of view, it is rather an application of the fact "if $(a,b)=(a,c)=1$, then $(a,bc)=1$" with some technical details (and the author gave some ideas in that direction). Of course, answers to the aforementioned question might be useful, but they don't provide a clear way how to solve this problem (the most useful answer is the IttayWeiss' one). – richrow Mar 29 '22 at 13:25