A function $f\colon P(\mathbb{N}) \to P(\mathbb{N})$ is monotonic iff $x \subseteq y \implies f(x) \subseteq f(y)$.
What is the cardinality of the set $F$ of all such functions?
What I have tried:
I know the cardinality is either $2^\mathbb{N}$ or
$(2^{\mathbb{N}})^{2^\mathbb{N}} =
2^{\mathbb{N}\cdot 2^\mathbb{N}} = 2^{2^\mathbb{N}}$. I know that if I asked the question about natural numbers and not sets of them, the answer would be the (analogue of the) greater possibility, and if I asked about real numbers, the answer would be the (analogue of the) lesser possibility. (So as far as I know, there is a kind of "precedent" for both.)
I tried proving it is $2^{\mathbb{N}}$ by finding a bijection between $P(\mathbb{N})$ and $F$, but I couldn't come up with anything.
I tried proving it is $2^{2^\mathbb{N}}$ in two ways. I tried finding a bijection between $P(\mathbb{N}) \to P(\mathbb{N})$ and $F$. For functions on naturals, this is easy, (and has been asked before): $$g(f) = n \mapsto \begin{cases} f(0) & n = 0\\ f(n) + f(n-1) & \text{else} \end{cases}$$
I tried to generalize this trick by defining $g'(f)$ similarly, in terms of sets containing one fewer element. However, such a definition would not be well-founded, because the set of sets of natural numbers is not well-ordered (take the family $\{ n \mid n > c \}$ for some $c$).
I also tried a diagonalization proof by contradiction: assume there is a bijection $$g\colon P(\mathbb{N}) \to F\,,$$ then $$x \mapsto P(\mathbb{N}) \setminus g(x)(x)$$ or something similar fails to be a monotonic function not in $g$'s image, because it fails to be (necessarily) monotonic, and I don't think this can be fixed.