I came across this statement in this paper - https://arxiv.org/pdf/1907.04164.pdf (Section E.2) I am trying to understand the implication of this statement.
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2Probably "simultaneously diagonalizable", meaning (equivalently) that there is a basis of simultaneous eigenvalues, and that there is a single invertible matrix $X$ such that both $XAX^{-1}$ and $XBX^{-1}$ are diagonal, where $A,B$ are the two matrices. – paul garrett Mar 24 '22 at 23:28
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Thank you, that helps. I looked up https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/236212/prove-that-simultaneously-diagonalizable-matrices-commute – dgumo Mar 25 '22 at 00:19
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Ah, yeah, it's surely not about use of "co-" in any sense of duality. :) – paul garrett Mar 25 '22 at 00:20