8

For an ordinal $\alpha$, define $cf(\alpha)$ to be the smallest ordinal $\beta$ such that there is $f:\beta\to\alpha$ such that $\bigcup f(\beta)=\alpha$. Why is this condition equivalent to $(\forall \gamma < \alpha) (\exists \delta < \beta)(f(\delta) > \gamma)$?

The condition $f:\beta\to\alpha$ such that $\bigcup f(\beta)=\alpha$ means $$\forall x[(x\in \alpha)\iff (\exists z\in f(\beta))(x\in z) ]$$ and the condition that $\beta$ is smallest says that if $\gamma $ is another ordinal such that there is some $g:\gamma\to \alpha$ such that $\bigcup g(\gamma)=\alpha$ then $\alpha \leq \gamma$. But I don't really see how the condition $(\forall \gamma < \alpha) (\exists \delta < \beta)(f(\delta > \gamma)$ comes into play.

Also, I don't "feel" this definition, so if anyone knows what the best way to think about it is, I'd be glad to hear that.

jjagmath
  • 18,214
user557
  • 11,889
  • 3
    One way to "feel" a definition is to compute lots of examples. – Lee Mosher Mar 16 '22 at 23:11
  • When $S\subseteq x\in On,$ we say $S$ is unbounded above in $ x$ iff $\forall y\in x,\exists s\in S,(y\le s).$ When $\cup x=x\in On$ then $cf(x)$ is the least ordinal that is order-isomorphic to an unbounded-above subset of $x.$ – DanielWainfleet Mar 17 '22 at 21:27

1 Answers1

6

I too once struggled to "feel" the definition, so allow me to provide some insight.

Let's first talk about the equivalence in your question. The equivalence is saying that the union of a set of ordinals is exactly the supremum (i.e. the least upper bound) of that set of ordinals. In other words, $\bigcup f(\beta) = \sup_{\gamma < \beta} f(\gamma)$. I provide a proof here.

  • First and foremost, $\bigcup f(\beta)$ is indeed an ordinal. See this answer.

  • To see that $\bigcup f(\beta)$ is an upper bound of $\{f(\gamma) : \gamma < \beta\}$, we observe that for any $\gamma < \beta$, we have $f(\gamma) \subseteq \bigcup f(\beta)$, so $f(\gamma) \leq \bigcup f(\beta)$.

  • Suppose $\delta$ is another upper bound of $\{f(\gamma) : \gamma < \beta\}$. We want to show that $\bigcup f(\beta) \leq \delta$. This is simply because by definition of upper bound, we have that $f(\gamma) \leq \delta$ for all $\beta$, i.e. $f(\gamma) \subseteq \delta$, so $\bigcup f(\beta) \subseteq \delta$ as well.

This then leads to my next point: I think it's easier to see $\operatorname{cf}(\alpha)$ as the smallest ordinal $\beta$ such that there exists a sequence $\{\alpha_\gamma : \gamma < \beta\}$ in which $\sup_\gamma \alpha_\gamma = \alpha$. This is because the union of a set of ordinals is exactly the supremum (i.e. the least upper bound) of that set of ordinals.

Cofinality of $\alpha$ is basically a measure of how fast we can approximate $\alpha$. In other words, it is the shortest path from $0$ to $\alpha$, but we are not allowed to actually reach $\alpha$. From this intuition, we can clearly see a few simple properties:

  • Since we are only concerned with the length and not the order-type, $\operatorname{cf}(\alpha)$ is always a cardinal.

  • The most straightforward way of "climbing" the ordinals below $\alpha$ is to just go through all the ordinals below it, which has length $|\alpha|$. Thus, $\operatorname{cf}(\alpha) \leq |\alpha|$.

  • If $\operatorname{cf}(\alpha) = \kappa$, then any path that "climbs" $\kappa$ should "lift" up to paths that "climb" $\alpha$. But since $\kappa$ is the shortest length that can "climb" $\alpha$, we must have $\operatorname{cf}(\kappa) = \kappa$. In other words, cardinals which are cofinalities must always be regular.

Of course, these are not proofs, but merely serve to provide an intuition to the proofs that you see in various books.

Let's look at a few examples.

  • $\mathrm{cf}(\omega) = \omega$. The only way to approximate $\omega$ from is to keep climbing the natural numbers - the good ol' and honest way.

  • $\mathrm{cf}(\omega_1) = \omega_1$. To see this, we note that we must have $\operatorname{cf}(\omega_1)$ is either $\omega$ or $\omega_1$. If $\operatorname{cf}(\omega_1) = \omega$, then we are saying that we can reach $\omega_1$ by having a countable sequence of ordinals below $\omega_1$ (i.e. countable ordinals) in which supremum is $\omega_1$. This is false as the countable union of countable sets is still countable (under $\mathsf{AC}$).

  • $\operatorname{cf}(\aleph_\omega) = \omega$. This is because we may take a "shortcut" to $\aleph_\omega$ by the sequence $\aleph_0,\aleph_1,\aleph_2,\dots$, which approximates but never reaches $\aleph_\omega$. By a similar reasoning, we may also conclude that $\operatorname{cf}(\aleph_\alpha) = \operatorname{cf}(\alpha)$ for all infinite limit ordinals $\alpha$.

  • $\operatorname{cf}(2^{\aleph_0}) = \; ?$. Well, it turns out that we cannot determine the cofinality of $2^{\aleph_0}$ from just $\mathsf{ZFC}$. By works of Solovay and König, it turns out that for any uncountable regular cardinal $\kappa$, there is a model of $\mathsf{ZFC}$ such that $\operatorname{cf}(2^{\aleph_0}) = \kappa$ (it is fine if you are confused with this example. It will come back to you as you learn more set theory).

So why is cofinality so important? That is because it turns out that many interesting in set theory (especially on large cardinals and combinatorial set theory), the length of such approximation of an ordinal $\alpha$ plays a huge part in whether $\alpha$ satisfy certain set-theoretic properties. For instance, if $\alpha$ is regular, it avoids certain loopholes to proofs that may fail by taking a "shortcut" to $\alpha$.

Clement Yung
  • 8,347
  • 1
    The last bullet point is a bit off. (1) It could be that $\aleph_\omega<2^{\aleph_0}$, but there is no extension satisfying that the cofinality of any ordinal is a singular cardinal. (2) What if you are working in a model where CH holds? The statement seems to suggest that the only values for the continuum have cofinality $\omega_1$. (3) As far as the continuum itself is concerned, this observation is due to Solovay, not Easton. Easton took that observation and expanded it to "all regular cardinals simultaneously", but you only talk about the continuum here. – Asaf Karagila Mar 17 '22 at 10:18
  • @AsafKaragila Thanks for the comments. I'm not exactly sure why (1) is relevant. and for (3) do you have the reference for Solovay's result? – Clement Yung Mar 17 '22 at 15:55
  • 1
    (1) Read what you wrote. You wrote that if $\kappa\leq2^{\aleph_0}$ is uncountable, then there is an extension in which that is its cofinality. If $2^{\aleph_0}=\aleph_{\omega+1}$, then $\kappa=\aleph_\omega$ is most certainly uncountable. (3) If my memory serves me right, this isn't published, but it's in some historical surveys of the results. I'll see what I can wrestle up. – Asaf Karagila Mar 17 '22 at 16:13
  • You can find this explained, amongst other places, in Kanamori's Introduction to the Handbook of Set Theory, specifically on section 3.2, line 5 (of the section). – Asaf Karagila Mar 17 '22 at 16:19
  • The point about (1), by the way, is that uncountable is not enough. It has to be regular in order to even be a cofinality. – Asaf Karagila Mar 17 '22 at 16:22
  • Independently of all the above, it would probably benefit your answer to mention that: (1) $\operatorname{cf}$ is idempotent; (2) $\operatorname{cf}(\alpha)$ is always a cardinal; and (3) it is always regular. None of those things are obvious from the definitions given in the question, and you do lean on those quite heavily in your examples. – Asaf Karagila Mar 17 '22 at 16:24
  • Thanks! I don't understand a couple of basic things. In the second bullet point, $\gamma < \beta$ means $\gamma \in \beta$, and this implies $\gamma \subseteq \beta$, hence $f(\gamma) \subseteq f(\beta)$. But how can this imply $f(\gamma)\subseteq \bigcup f(\beta)$? I'm thinking of an example like and ${{3}}\subseteq {{1,2},{3}}$ but ${{3}}\not\subseteq \bigcup {{1,2},{3}}={1,2,3}$. I don't see how to show that every element of $f(\gamma)$ lies in some element of $f(\beta)$. (to be continued...) – user557 Mar 17 '22 at 16:32
  • And I have a similar concern about the third bullet point, where we need to prove that for any $x$ that lies in some $y\in f(\beta)$, $x$ also lies in $\delta$. Also, on a larger scale (maybe this is the main source of my confusions), you're saying "The equivalence is saying that the union of a set of ordinals is exactly the supremum of that set of ordinals". Which "equivalence" do you mean? The statement about the supremum doesn't have to do anything with $\alpha$; how is it related to the condition $(\forall \gamma < \alpha)(\exists \delta < \beta)(f(\delta) > \gamma)$? – user557 Mar 17 '22 at 16:32
  • 1
    @lopofa it seems like you're a victim of poor notation. I'm sure here $\bigcup f(\beta)$ means $\bigcup_{\gamma < \beta} f(\gamma)$, or $\bigcup f[\beta]$, where $f[\beta]$ denotes the image of $f$ on the set $\beta$. – Clement Yung Mar 18 '22 at 12:17
  • @AsafKaragila thanks, I've edited accordingly to your suggestion. Also, I can't seem to find the statement you're referring to (I'm staring at Stevo's notes on coherent sequences - subadditive functions). – Clement Yung Mar 19 '22 at 00:23
  • Which one do you mean? – Asaf Karagila Mar 19 '22 at 00:29
  • @AsafKaragila You referred to me to Kanamori's Introduction to the Handbook of Set Theory (which I presume refers to the very thick book with the title Handbook of Set Theory). I'm not sure what you mean by Section 3.2 - chapter 3 of that book is on coherent sequences, which I presume weren't what you were referring to? – Clement Yung Mar 19 '22 at 00:31
  • No, Kanamori wrote a long "chapter" titled introduction. It has sections. It's literally what I referred to, the introduction written by Kanamori to the Handbook, in there, section 3.2, about line 5. – Asaf Karagila Mar 19 '22 at 07:44
  • @AsafKaragila I see it, thanks for the reference. – Clement Yung Mar 20 '22 at 00:39
  • Now I can see that the condition $(\forall \gamma < \alpha) (\exists \delta < \beta)(f(\delta) > \gamma)$ is just the condition $\alpha = \sup{f(\gamma): \gamma \in\beta}$. I'm still confused about the notation though, isn't the "big union of X" always supposed to consist of elements of elements of X? Is there some kind of convention that the big union of the image of a function does not consist of elements of elements of the union? – user557 Mar 20 '22 at 01:00
  • @lopofa That's true in general and I agree that $\bigcup f(\beta)$ is not a good choice of notation here. Regardless, it's possible to guess what $\bigcup f(\beta)$ actually means here: Since $f : \beta \to \alpha$ is a function with domain $\beta$, it technically does not make sense to write $f(\beta)$ since $\beta \notin \beta$. The next likely interpretation would thus be $f(\beta)$ is the image of $f$ on $\beta$. – Clement Yung Mar 20 '22 at 01:06