From this paper, in Eq. (4), it is asserted that (LHS being (3) and RHS being (4))
$$ (-1)^{n} z^{n} \frac{d^{n} \operatorname{sinc}(z)}{(z d z)^{n}} = (-1)^{n+1} z^{n+1} \frac{d^{n+1} \cos (z)}{(z d z)^{n+1}} $$
with $\operatorname{sinc}(z) = \sin(z)/z$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}_0$ and $z\in \mathbb{C}$. The notation employed in the cited paper is a bit ambiguous but in other literature (or here on SE), as far as I see it,
$$\frac{d^n}{(zdz)^n} f(z) := \left(\frac{1}{z} \frac{d}{d z}\right)^{n} := \underbrace{ \left(\frac{1}{z} \frac{d}{d z}\right) \left(\frac{1}{z} \frac{d}{d z}\right) \cdots \left(\frac{1}{z} \frac{d}{d z}\right)}_{\text{n times}} f(z) $$
I can't verify this though. When I substitute $n=1$ to test, I get for the LHS: $-\frac{\operatorname{cos}(z)}{z}+\frac{\operatorname{sin}(z)}{z^{2}}$ but for the RHS $z \left(\frac{\sin (z)}{z^2}-\frac{\cos (z)}{z}\right)$. Hence it feels like in the equation above, the $z^{n+1}$ on the RHS should actually be just $z$.
Is this an error in the paper or am I missing something?