Let $f:\mathcal P(X) \rightarrow\mathcal P(X)$. Suppose that
(B1) $f(\emptyset) = \emptyset$
(B2) $f(A) = f(A^\complement)$
(B3) $f(A) \subseteq B\cup f(B)$ if $A\subseteq B$
(B4) $f(f(A))\subseteq f(A)$
(B5) $f(A\cup B)\subseteq f(A)\cup f(B)$
for $A,B\in\mathcal P(X)$.
Proposition 1. Suppose that (B4) and (B5) hold. Then
(X4) $f(A\cup f(A)) \subseteq A\cup f(A)$
follows.
Proposition 2. Suppose that (B2), (B3), and (X4) hold. Then (B4) follows
Proposition 1 and Proposition 2 tell me that I can replace (B4) with (X4) and vice versa. My goal is now to prove Proposition 3 and Proposition 4:
Proposition 3. Suppose that (B1), (B2), (B3), (B4), and (B5) hold. Then
(X5) $A\cap B\cap f(A\cap B) = A\cap B\cap (f(A)\cup f(B))$
follows.
Proposition 4. Suppose that (B1), (B2), (B4) and (X5) hold. Then (B3) and (B5) follow.
By (B2) and (B5) it follows that \begin{align*} f(A \cap B) &= f(A^\complement \cup B^\complement) \\ &\subseteq f(A^\complement) \cup f(B^\complement) \\ &= f(A) \cup f(B). \end{align*} So the $\subseteq$-inclusion for Proposition 3 is easy to show. However, I failed to prove the $\supseteq$-inclusion. For Proposition 4 I was unable to prove either inclusion. I hope that someone here has an idea.
This is a follow-up question of my earlier question Axiomatizations of the boundary operator. Oliver Diaz answer shows that $f$, given axioms (B1), (B2), (B3), (B4), and (B5), yields the same topology as $f$ given the axioms (B1), (B2), (B4), and (X5). Note that $f$ here is the boundary operator $\partial$; see my other question for more details. Now I want to show that both axiomatizations not only yield the same topology but that I can replace (B3) and (B5) with (X5) (without refering to the topology in the proof). Is this possibe? Or do I have to take the "detour" via the topology in the proof? The lemma stated in Wang's master's thesis gives me the feeling that the additional condition $A\cap f(A) = \emptyset$ is necessary, which suggests using the "detour". However, these are only guesses. I hope someone here has a definite answer.
Proof of Proposition 1. Let $A\in\mathcal P(X)$. By (B5) and (B4) it follows that \begin{align*} f(A\cup f(A)) &\subseteq f(A) \cup f(f(A)) \\ &\subseteq f(A) \cup f(A) \\ &= f(A).\end{align*} Since $f(A) \subseteq A\cup f(A)$, it follows that $f(A\cup f(A)) \subseteq A\cup f(A)$.
$\square$
Proof of Proposition 2. Trivially, it holds that $f(A)\subseteq A\cup f(A)$. By (B3) and (X4) it follows that \begin{align*} f(f(A)) &\subseteq f(A)\cup f(A)\cup f(A\cup f(A)) \\ &\subseteq f(A) \cup f(A)\cup A\cup f(A) \\ &= A\cup f(A). \end{align*} Likewise, \begin{align*} f(f(A^\complement)) &\subseteq f(A^\complement)\cup f(A^\complement)\cup f(A^\complement\cup f(A^\complement)) \\ &\subseteq f(A^\complement)\cup f(A^\complement)\cup f(A^\complement) \cup A^\complement \\ &=A^\complement\cup f(A^\complement). \end{align*} By (B2) it follows that \begin{align*} f(f(A)) &\subseteq (A\cup f(A)) \cap (A^\complement \cup f(A^\complement)) \\ &= (A\cap f(A))\cup A^\complement\cap f(A)) \\ &= (A\cap A^\complement)\cup (A\cap f(A)) \cup (A^\complement\cap f(A)) \cup (f(A)\cap f(A)) \\ &\subseteq \emptyset \cup f(A) \cup f(A) \cup f(A) \\ &= f(A). \end{align*}
$\square$