Theorem: Let the partial derivatives of $f$ exists in a neighbourhood around $a$, and let the partial derivatives be continuous (ONLY NEEDS TO BE) at $a$. Then, $f$ is differentiable at $a$.
I understand the proof, yet I'm having a difficulty getting an intuition in the 3D case. Here is how I would describe the general ideas of the proof:
- There is $B(a,\delta)$ where the partial derivatives are defined, and $\forall i, |Df_i(x) - Df_i(a)|< \varepsilon$, if $|x-a|<\delta$.
- For any point $x$ inside the ball, we join $a$ to $x$ (assuming $\mathbb{R}^p \to \mathbb{R}$) $p$ line segments in a 'taxi cab' way, each segment is parallel to exactly one of the axes.
- Suppose points $u_1,u_2 \in \mathbb{R}^p$ are the endpoints of one of these line segments. Using MVT, in these line segment there exists a point $c_i \in \mathbb{R}^p$ such that $|f(u_1)-f(u_2) - Df_i(a)| \leq \varepsilon |x-a|$. Here we used the continuity of the partial derivatives, and the fact that all of the line segments are inside of $B(a,\delta)$.
- Then we just triangle these inequalities for all co-ordinates, and we arrive to the definition of differentiability of $f$ at $a$.
The proof roughly goes like that. However, I'm having issues interpreting this geometrically when $f:\mathbb{R}^2\to\mathbb{R}$. Can someone give me an idea?