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A standard theorem concerning series of real numbers states that every absolutely convergent series of real numbers converges. I would like to know a counterexample to this statement when we are dealing only with rational numbers. More precisely, I would like to know an example of a series $\sum_{n=0}^\infty q_n$ of rational numbers such that $\sum_{n=0}^\infty|q_n|$ converges to a rational number and that $\sum_{n=0}^\infty q_n$ converges to an irrational number. Furthermore, I want that the reason why the example works is understandable by someone who is only aware of basic statements concerning series.

If it wasn't for the last requirement, I would know how to do it. One possibility would be to consider the power series$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\binom{-1/2}nx^n,$$which converges to $1/\sqrt{1+x}$ in $(-1,1)$. In particular,$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\binom{-1/2}n\left(\frac34\right)^n=\frac2{\sqrt7}\notin\Bbb Q.$$But\begin{align}\sum_{n=0}^\infty\left|\binom{-1/2}n\left(\frac34\right)^n\right|&=\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\binom{-1/2}n\left(\frac34\right)^n\\&=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\binom{-1/2}n\left(-\frac34\right)^n\\&=2\in\Bbb Q.\end{align}Another possibility consists in using a counting argument (although this only proves that a counter-example exists, rather than exhibiting one). The numbers of the form$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{\varepsilon_n}{3^n},$$where $(\varepsilon_n)_{n\in\Bbb Z_+}$ is a sequence which takes only the values $1$ and $-1$, form an uncountable set. So, for some sequences $(\varepsilon_n)_{n\in\Bbb Z_+}$, the sum is irrational. But$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\left|\frac{\varepsilon_n}{3^n}\right|=\frac32\in\Bbb Q.$$

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    I mean the last one sounds fine? In particular, (I believe) $(\epsilon_n) = (1, -1, 1, -1, -1, 1, -1, -1, -1, 1, -1, -1, -1, -1, \ldots)$ should work by considering the base-$3$ representation, since it's not periodic – Gareth Ma Mar 06 '22 at 18:56
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    @GarethMa: Why don't you post that as an answer? One could also construct examples from any base-2 representation of an irrational number. – Martin R Mar 06 '22 at 19:15
  • @MartinR I don't know, I just have a tendency to leave hints to questions haha, as I feel like I haven't really don't much work to "answer" apart from giving a slight hint. I have posted an answer. – Gareth Ma Mar 06 '22 at 19:18
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    Once more I wonder under what criteria our moderators remove questions from the hot network queue. Is this a lazy question? A click-bait title? Does this title require MathJax? I don't think so. – Martin R Mar 07 '22 at 09:27

5 Answers5

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Here’s one that’s perhaps more in the spirit of direct demonstration that you were looking for:

$$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac1{k(k+1)}=\sum_{k=1}^\infty\left(\frac1k-\frac1{k+1}\right)=1\;, $$

$$ \sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^k}{k(k+1)}=\sum_{k=1}^\infty(-1)^k\left(\frac1k-\frac1{k+1}\right)=1+2\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^k}k=1-2\log2\;. $$

joriki
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Inspired by Gareth Ma's answer:

Let $x \in (0, 1)$ be any irrational number and $$ x = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{a_n}{2^n} \,, \quad a_n \in \{ 0, 1 \} $$ its base-2 representation Then $\epsilon_n = 2a_n-1 \in \{ -1, +1 \}$, $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\epsilon_n}{2^{n+1}} = x - \frac 12 $$ is irrational, whereas $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{2^{n+1}} = \frac 12 $$ is rational.

Martin R
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I believe your example with $\epsilon_n$ is fine. In particular, we can use the sequence $(\epsilon_n) = (\color{red}{1}, -1, \color{red}{1}, -1, -1, \color{red}{1}, -1, -1, -1, \color{red}{1}, -1, -1, -1, -1, \color{red}{1}, \ldots)$, which is irrational by looking at the base-$3$ expansion of the number, as it is aperiodic.

Gareth Ma
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  • That's a fine answer. I would rather have an answer in which the sum of both series turned out to be some known numbers, but I enjoyed your answer. – José Carlos Santos Mar 06 '22 at 19:20
  • @JoséCarlosSantos The sum should be $-\frac{3}{2} + 2\sum_{i=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{3^{a_n}}$ where $(a_n)$ is any aperiodic sequence. Here it is the triangular numbers but I guess you can make $(a_n)$ anything where you know the sum. – Gareth Ma Mar 06 '22 at 19:22
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I suspect this might draw the same comment from you as the other two existing answers, but like Martin R’s answer it allows you to construct an example for any irrational number $x\in(0,1)$: Choose $q_n=\epsilon_n2^{-n}$ with $\epsilon_n\in\{-1,1\}$, so $\sum_n|q_n|=1\in\mathbb Q$, and choose $\epsilon_n=\operatorname{sgn}\left(x-\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}q_k\right)$.

Since $\sum_{k=n+1}^\infty2^{-k}=2^{-n}$, there is always enough sum left to correct for the overshoot, much like in the proof of the Riemann rearrangement theorem.

joriki
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Here is a rather interesting (and rather trivial) observation about which Martin touched upon.

Any number $x\in(0,1)$ admits a unique expression as $x=\sum^\infty_{k=1}2^{-k}\varepsilon_k$ where $\varepsilon_k\in\{0,1\}$, and $\sum_k\varepsilon_k=\infty$. Let $\delta_k:=2\varepsilon_n-1$. Then $\delta_k\in\{-1,1\}$ and $$x=\sum^\infty_{k=1}\frac{\delta_k+1}{2}2^{-k}=\frac12+\sum^\infty_{k=1}\delta_k2^{-k-1}$$ Then, if $(X_n:n\in\mathbb{N})$ is a sequence of Bernoulli $B(\pm1,1/2)$ random variables, then with probability $1$ is $\sum_n2^{-n}X_n$ irrational, yet $\sum_n|2^{-n}X^n|=1$ is rational. That is, the series that satisfy the conditions oulined by JC are typical.

Mittens
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