I am going through William Fulton's "Algebraic Curves" and when he started talking about projective spaces, I got a little confused as the idea I think is right is not mentioned anywhere in the book. I started to think it might be just wrong and decided to ask this question here. If similar question already appeared somewhere I would be glad to be redirected there.
So in affine case we have Nullstellensatz which says $$I(V(I)) = \sqrt{I}.$$ It is very easy to check that an ideal of any algebraic set is radical. Also we have that $\sqrt{I}$ is the smallest radical ideal, containing I (if $J$ is any radical ideal containing I, then $I \subseteq \sqrt{I} \subseteq J$). So in a sense, $\sqrt{I}$ is the smallest possible answer to the problem of figuring out what $I(V(I))$ is.
So in projective case my reasoning was as follows. We know that ideal of a projective algebraic set is homogeneous. Also, for an ideal I, let's denote by $H(I)$ the intersection of all homogeneous ideals containing $I$ (which is, plainly, homogeneous too). So the analogy suggests that we must have $$I(V(I)) = H(I).$$ If it is even true, what assumptions have to be made in order for this to work? Clearly, the example of $x^2 + 1$ over $\mathbb{R}$ suggests that field has to be algebraically closed. But is there something else?
Also why I initially found it peculiar is that there is no particular notation for what I've just called "$H(I)$". Or is there any standard choice which I am not aware of?
Thank you for your answers in advance.