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Why does p divides $2^{2(q-1)}-1$ if p divides $2^{q-1}+1$. The assumptions I have on $p$ and $q$ are that both are uneven and both are prime numbers. Also, besides having the proof, I'm tyring to have the "intuition" between this but I'm struggling.

Thanks!

Bill Dubuque
  • 272,048

2 Answers2

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Hint:$$2^{2(q-1)}-1=(2^{q-1}-1)(2^{q-1}+1)$$

Shivam M
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$p\:|\:2^{q-1} + 1$ implies $2^{q-1} + 1 = ap$ for some integer $a$. Notice that $$2^{2(q-1)} - 1 = (2^{q-1} - 1)(2^{q-1} + 1) = (2^{q-1} - 1)ap.$$ Hence $2^{2(q-1)} - 1$ is an integer multiple of $p$, meaning that $p$ divides $2^{2(q-1)} - 1$.