I have a question from a sample exam I find difficults to solve:
Prove that if $\gcd(a, b) = 1 ⇒ \gcd(a^2, b^2) = 1$ .
I don't have any idea how to start. I'd like to get helped. thanks!
I have a question from a sample exam I find difficults to solve:
Prove that if $\gcd(a, b) = 1 ⇒ \gcd(a^2, b^2) = 1$ .
I don't have any idea how to start. I'd like to get helped. thanks!
The "trick" way is to solve $ax+by =1$ then cube both sides to get a solution to $a^2X+b^2Y=1$.
The reason I call this a "trick" is that the result generalizes to any UFD, but this proof does not.
Let's think about the prime factors of $a$ and $b$. $\gcd(a,b)=1$ means that there's no common prime factor of $a$ and $b$. Now when we square $a$ and $b$ they have the same prime factors as before but twice all of them. As $a$ and $b$ has no common prime factor neither does $a^2$ and $b^2$. So $gcd(a^2,b^2)=1$ hence PROVED :)