Can One explain me a bit about the Hence
2.12 Theorem
Let $\{E_n\}$, where $n=1,2,3,...$, be a sequence of countable sets, and put
$S=\underset{n=1}{\overset{\infty }{\cup }}E_n$.
Then $S$ is countable.
Proof
Let every set $E_n$ be arranged in a sequence $\left\{x_{\text{nk}}\right\},k=1,2,3,\text{...},$
and consider the infinite array
(16)
in which the elements of $E_n$ form the nth row.
The array contains all elements of $S$. As indicated by the arrows, these elements can be arranged in a sequence
(17) $x_{11};x_{21},x_{12};x_{31},x_{22},x_{13};x_{41},x_{32},x_{23},x_{14};\text{...}$
Sentence 1 If any two of the sets $E_n$ have elements in common, these will appear more than once in (17).
Sentence 2 Hence there is a subset $T$ of the set of all positive integers such that $S\sim T$, which shows that $S$ is at most countable. Since $E_1\subset S$, and $E_1$ is infinite, $S$ is infinite, and thus countable.
Problem: What's the relation between sentence 1 and sentence 2?
When we prove a set is countable, we produce an *injection* between from said set to N
. not abijection
-one-one mapping? and In your last line, you used thedesired bijection
, I understand this. – HyperGroups Jul 08 '13 at 03:33