I have $k$ distinct balls split into two sets $A$ and $B$, $A$ has $k_1$ balls and $B$ has $k_2$ balls, and $k_1, k_2 \geq 1$. I have a random label machine which prints numbers from {1, 2, ... n} ($n > k$) with uniform probability. I then label all the balls with this machine. What is the probability that every label appears only in at most one of $A$ and $B$? i.e. no label appears in both $A$ and $B$? I have a lower bound but I'm not very satisfied with it and I would like to know how the actual probability should be calculated.
I came up with the following lower bound by using this process: first label all the balls in $A$. We would have then used up at most $k_1$ labels. Then the remaining $k_2$ balls have to avoid those $k_1$ labels. The probability is therefore $\left(\frac{n-k_1}{n}\right)^{k_2}$. My main gripe with this lower bound is that it's not symmetric, e.g. setting $k_1=1, k_2=k-1$ should be the same probability as setting $k_1=k-1, k_2=1$, but it's not the same in this function. I also have no idea how you would calculate the actual probability as using this same process seems to be really difficult for doing so, as you have to consider how many labels were taken up in the first $k_1$ balls.