Is it Possible that some Non-Analytically Integrable Functions might actually have Analytical Integrals (that have not yet been discovered)?
When reading posts like these (e.g. List of functions not integrable in elementary terms - too bad the main hyperlink in this post is broken), we often hear about functions that are considered "non-analytically integrable" : this means that these functions do not have "closed form and exact" integrals. For these kinds of functions, we are required to integrate them analytically. On another note, I never knew about this - (but if I understand this correctly) there is actually a mathematical theorem called "Liouville's Theorem" that states we can prove certain functions will not have analytical integrals.
For the longest time, I always thought that some functions that are currently Non-Analytically Integrable might actually have Analytical (Exact Closed Form) Integrals - but we just haven't discovered them yet. For example, perhaps in the future, some new theorems in mathematics will be discovered that will provide Analytical Integrals to functions that are currently considered as Non-Analytically Integrable.
From a Statistics and Probability perspective, we often use stochastic sampling methods (e.g. Markov Chain Monte Carlo) to approximate the integrals of posterior probability distribution functions that arise in Bayesian Statistics. Sometimes, these posterior probability distribution functions have "analytically exact closed form solutions - these are called "conjugate priors" and as a result do not require approximations. However, integrating many of these posterior probability distributions will often require some type of approximation method due to their complex and irregular nature.
In the case of these complex and irregular "non-analytically integrable" (posterior probability distribution) functions - is it possible that one day, some new math will be discovered that allows some of these "non-analytically integrable" functions to have closed form analytical integrals?
Or is the non-existence of analytical integrals for these posterior probability distribution functions is forever guaranteed by the Liouville Theorem?
Thank you!