(This has been cross-posted from a now-deleted MO question, per advice from Neil Strickland.)
Suppose we have natural numbers $E$ and $F$ such that all of $$G = \frac{\bigg(\gcd(E,F)\bigg)^2}{F}$$ $$H = \frac{E^2}{F}$$ $$I = \bigg(\frac{E}{F}\bigg)\cdot\gcd(E,F)$$ and $$J = \frac{E}{\gcd(E,F)}$$ are also natural numbers.
Here are my questions:
Is it possible to ask the theorem prover called Lean whether it follows from these combined premises that $F$ divides $E$? If so, what is Lean's answer?
(Caveat: I know that Lean is open source, however, I have not yet gotten down to studying it in detail, so any help is appreciated.)
Therefore your question is equivalent to: does $,f\mid e^2\Rightarrow f\mid e,?$ which of course has obvious counterexamples, e.g. $,f = e^2,$ for $|e|> 1,, $ e..g $,e = 2,3,$ as you noted. Those are dupes so you should delete it to save us the effort in doing so.
– Bill Dubuque Feb 03 '22 at 09:22