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Given a set $A$, denote by $\operatorname{card}(A)$ its cardinal and by $P(A)$ its power set, or set of subsets of $A$.

Suppose we have two sets $A$ and $B$ such that $\operatorname{card}(P(A))\le \operatorname{card}(P(B))$. Can we deduce that $\operatorname{card}(A)\le \operatorname{card}(B)$?

In other more elementary terms, suppose we have an injection $P(A)\hookrightarrow P(B)$. Can we deduce that there is an injection $A\hookrightarrow B$?

Of course I know the answer is yes if some of the sets is finite. But I don't know if it is true in the most easy case that $A$ is denumerable, and $B$ any set.

I know that if the answer is affirmative, then $\operatorname{card}(P(A))= \operatorname{card}(P(B))$ would imply $\operatorname{card}(A)= \operatorname{card}(B)$, a result I don't know if it is true in general.

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No! This is not a theorem of $\sf ZFC$. You can have: $$\text{card}(A) > \text{card}(B) \land \text{card}(P(A)) = \text{card} (P(B))$$

See: Luzin hypothesis.

Zuhair
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