More conceptually, we show that argument is simply a fractional form of the obvious fact that a nonzero $\rm\color{#c00}{multiple}$ of a composite remains composite. Recall the following fundamental characterization of (reduced) fraction equivalence (cf. unique fractionization)
$${\rm if}\,\ \color{#0a0}{\gcd(c,d)=1}\,\ {\rm then}\,\ \dfrac{a}b = \dfrac{c}d\iff \begin{align}a = k\:\!c\\ b = k\:\! d\end{align}\qquad\qquad$$
So if the numerator $\,c\,$ of a $\rm\color{#0a0}{reduced}$ fraction $\,c/d\,$ is composite then so too is the numerator of every equivalent fraction $\,a/b,\,$ by $\,a = kc\,$ is a $\rm\color{#c00}{multiple}$ $(\neq 0)$ of a composite so is composite.
Thus $\,\dfrac{a}{b}= \dfrac{65}{56}\,\overset{\rm add\ 1}\Longrightarrow\, \dfrac{a+b}b = \dfrac{121}{56}$ is reduced, so $121=11^2$ composite $\Rightarrow a+b\,$ composite.
Exactly the same argument works if we replace $\,65/56\,$ by any reduced fraction $\,c/d,\,$ since $\,c/d+1 = (c+d)/d\,$ remains reduced, so $\,c+d\,$ composite $\Rightarrow a+b\,$ composite.
Your argument is not correct since it implicitly assumes without justification that $\,a,b\,$ are coprime (i.e. $\,k=1\,$ above), but $\,k\,$ can be any nonzero integer by the above equivalence. But this can be remedied by (homogeneous) reducing to coprime $\,\bar a,\bar b\,$ by cancelling their gcd $\,g = (a,b). \,$ Then your proof shows $\,\bar a + \bar b\,$ is composite hence so too is its $\rm\color{#c00}{multiple}$ $\,a+b= g(\bar a + \bar b)$. But we still need the uniqueness of reduced fractions (i.e. the special case of above when $\,(c,d)\!=\!1\,$ so $\,k\!=\!1)$.
Remark $ $ Hendrik Lenstra once joked, to show that there are infinitely many composites we can mimic Euclid's proof that there are infinitely many primes, i.e. given any finite list of composites, to get a new composite simply $\rm\color{#c00}{multiply}$ them, but don't add $1!$