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I have been hugely enjoying Logic as Algebra by Halmos and Givant (1998, isbn: 0-88385-327-2)1, largely because I appreciate the authors' careful attention to the point of view of someone who is completely unfamiliar with the subject (like me!). In particular, the authors take the time to explain notational conventions in detail. (In fact, while reading this book I've often found myself wishing that all those who write about mathematics were this considerate, that is to say, this polite, to the reader.)

Therefore it came like a punch in the stomach when on page 91 the authors for the first time drop the symbol $\models$ without any prior mention, let alone definition. In fact, here's this very first occurrence of this symbol in the book:

Deduction theorem. ${\mathbf S}\models q$ if and only if ${\mathbf S}$ has a finite subset $\{p_1,\dots,p_n\}$ such that $\vdash (p_1 \wedge \cdots \wedge p_n) \Rightarrow q$.

(Here $p_1,\dots,p_n,$ and $q$ are individual propositions of the propositional calculus, and ${\mathbf S}$ is a set of such propositions.)

And a few lines later:

${\mathbf S}\models q$ if and only if $p_1 \wedge \cdots \wedge p_n \leq q$ for some finite subset $\{p_1,\dots,p_n\}$ of ${\mathbf S}$.

...and

One important special case of the deduction theorem is that $p\models q$ if and only if $\vdash p \Rightarrow q$ (that is, if and only if $p \leq q$).

Eventually I sorted out the matter, and concluded that these were typos.

I figure that I'd post the corrections here, for the next who run into the same unpleasant surprise (see under Answers below).


1 I'm completely new to this subject, so it's impossible for me to gauge how standard the notation, terminology, and concepts that the authors use are. Therefore, a full understanding of this post may require access to this book.

kjo
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  • How are they using "≤"? – Doug Spoonwood Jul 05 '13 at 15:45
  • They have used $\leq$ in multiple senses throughout the book, but the definition for the $\leq$ they use in the passage quoted is the one given on p. 48: for propositions $p$ and $q$, $$p \leq q \quad \text{iff} \quad p \wedge q = p;.$$ – kjo Jul 05 '13 at 15:58

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As it turns out, on the first paragraph of the following page (p. 92), the authors do define $\models$:

The notation that is often employed to express relationship of semantic consequence between ${\mathbf S}$ and $q$ is ${\mathbf S}\models q$.

This is much more in keeping with the authors' handling of notational matters up to this point in the text.

Therefore, I must conclude that all three occurrences of $\models$ on p. 91 are typos. They should all have been $\vdash$. Thus:

Deduction theorem. ${\mathbf S}\vdash q$ if and only if ${\mathbf S}$ has a finite subset $\{p_1,\dots,p_n\}$ such that $\vdash (p_1 \wedge \cdots \wedge p_n) \Rightarrow q$.

${\mathbf S}\vdash q$ if and only if $p_1 \wedge \cdots \wedge p_n \leq q$ for some finite subset $\{p_1,\dots,p_n\}$ of ${\mathbf S}$.

One important special case of the deduction theorem is that $p\vdash q$ if and only if $\vdash p \Rightarrow q$ (that is, if and only if $p \leq q$).

Further confirmation of this explanation is the fact that these three uses of $\models$ on p. 91 happen shortly after a paragraph, also on p. 91, defining and discussing the use of the symbol $\vdash$.

And not least, if the three rogue $\models$'s are replaced with $\vdash$'s, then the resulting text actually makes sense in the context of the foregoing discussion.

EDIT: One further bit of confirmation for the explanation given above is that, on p. 93, the authors write (my emphasis on the first sentence):

There is a surprising and important semantic analogue of the deduction theorem.

Compactness theorem. For any proposition $q$ and any set ${\mathbf S}$ of propositions in $({\mathbf A}, {\mathbf F})$, we have ${\mathbf S} \models q$ if and only if there is a finite subset $\{p_1,\dots,p_n\}$ of ${\mathbf S}$ such that $\{p_1,\dots,p_n\} \models q$.

kjo
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  • I don't see how the resulting text makes sense if actually try and apply the deduction theorem to a derivation. Yes, in classical propositional calculus, ($p_1 \wedge \cdots \wedge p_n$)⇒q will hold, because CaCb...Cyz (the dots here indicate sequence of "(Cx) type spell marks) qualifies as logically equivalent CK...Ka...yz, where you have one less K in the sequence of conjunction symbols than you have in the sequence of symbols a...y. But, if you actually apply the deduction theorem you don't end up infering an antecedent of the type Kpq, an abbreviation for a negation of the type NCpNq. – Doug Spoonwood Jul 05 '13 at 15:56
  • @DougSpoonwood: ??? – kjo Jul 05 '13 at 16:03
  • You end up inferring a conditional of the type CpCq...Cyz. ("p" isn't necessarily a propositional variable... I'm using lower case letters as metalinguistic variables here). Sorry, I thought they explained Polish notation. "C" and "K are binary connectives. Let all lower case letters, except for x and y stand for propositional variable. For this definition, let x and y stand for meta-linguistic variables. If x and y qualify as formulas, then Cxy and Kxy qualify as formulas. "C" indicates ⇒, and "K" indicate logical conjunction. For an example of how to apply it, see here... – Doug Spoonwood Jul 05 '13 at 16:13
  • http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/374937/tricks-for-constructing-hilbert-style-proofs (my first answer). If you have an example of an application of the deduction theorem where from {a, ..., r}|-s (where you have at least two variables in the set on the left of the "|-" sign, you end up formally inferring CK...Ka...rs to where you end up inferring a conjunction in the antecedent which was not part of the set {a, ..., r}, I'll happily take a look at it. Example: From {Cab, Cbc}|-Cac, you'll end up inferring using just the information from the deduction theorem C KCabCbc Cac. – Doug Spoonwood Jul 05 '13 at 16:20
  • If you can do that, again, I'll take a look. But, my understanding of the deduction theorem goes that you'd first infer Cab|-CCbcCac (after some work). Then you'll infer |-CCabCCbcCac. – Doug Spoonwood Jul 05 '13 at 16:23
  • @DougSpoonwood: thanks for the comments, and the link. I'm a rank novice at this (I just started reading this book yesterday, and this is my first encounter with this stuff), so it'll take me a while to digest/understand your point. If (contrary to what I claim in this answer) the three mentions of $\models$ on p.91 are not typos, then the only other explanation I can think of is that they got erroneously shuffled ahead of the definition of $\models$ given on p.92. This would mean that the assertions quoted in my original post are true as given. Is this what you're saying? – kjo Jul 05 '13 at 16:34
  • No, I do not mean to say that. I agree that the instances of "⊨" are typos (or misunderstanding on the authors part, though the typos interpretation I find more charitable). I only mean to say that when you apply the deduction theorem (it qualifies as a metatheorem of classical propositional logic) to formal proofs, you can't get what Halmos and Givant call the deduction theorem that way (their theorem is NOT false). The texts, including the Wikipedia that I've seen, don't have a conjunction like that also. – Doug Spoonwood Jul 05 '13 at 17:20