The following question is taken from UCLA's Logic quiz:
Let $P(n,m)$ be a property about two integers $n$ and $m$. If we want to disprove the claim "There exists an integer $n$ such that $P(n,m)$ is true for all integers $m$", then we need to prove that ___?
I understand that the correct answer is
For every integer $n$, there exists an integer $m$ such that $P(n,m)$ is false.
I am not sure why this option is incorrect:
There exists an integer m such that $P(n,m)$ is false for all integers $n.$
After all, if I show the existence of an $m^*$ such that $P(n, m^*)$ is false for all $n,$ then there cannot exist an $n^*$ such that $P(n^*,m)$ is true for all $m$. What am I missing?