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$\forall b \space (b>1\implies b>5)$

is false since $b$ can be $2$ and $2 < 5$

It is correct?

Now,

if $b \in (1, \infty) \space$ $\implies$ $\space b > 5$

Is the second statement true or false or neither?

1 Answers1

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Let $P_1$ and $P_2$ be two properties.

A statement of the form :

$$\forall (b) \Big[ P_1 (b) \implies P_2(b)\Big]$$

is equivalent to : there is no $b$ such that $b$ has the property $P_1$ and $b$ does not have the property $P_2$.

Note.- The literal meaning of an expression of this form is : for all $b$, if $b$ has property $P_1$, then, $b$ ( also) has property $P_2$.

Do you think there is no $b$ that

  • has the property of belonging to $(1, \infty)$

  • but that does not have the property of being strictly greater than $5$?

In case you can exhibit any number that has property $1$ but does not have property $2$, you've proved that the sentence is false.