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$f(x)=xe^x$ is such that $f'(x)=e^x+xe^x$ and so $f''(x)=(2+x)e^x$. I know that $f''(x)>0\iff x>-2$ and $f''(x)<0\iff x<-2$, while $x=-2$ is an inflection point. Can I say that in $(-\infty,2)$ the function is STRICTLY concave and in $(2,\infty)$ is STRICTLY convex? Can I include also $x=2$ in both of these intervals?

Nik
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By wikipedia

A differentiable function f is (strictly) concave on an interval if and only if its derivative function f ′ is (strictly) monotonically decreasing on that interval, that is, a concave function has a non-increasing (decreasing) slope.

And for your example $f'$ is strictly increasing (resp. decreasing) on $[-2, \infty)$ and $(-\infty, -2]$ (despite having $f'' = 0$ at $x = -2$) so we can include $x = -2$


To elaborate, this comes about as for a general real valued differentiable function we have: $f' > 0 \implies f$ strictly increasing, but the converse is not always true

For example if $f(x) = x^3$ then $f$ is strictly increasing but $f'(0) = 0$

Red5551
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