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In high school, while teaching definite integration, my maths professor casually remarked that when choosing a variable that you want to substitute viz. in $f\big(g(x)\big)$, if you intend to substitute $g(x)$ as '$t$,' you must be careful that $g(x)$ must compulsorily be a one-one function within the integrating limits, when I asked for the reason he said that it would lead to inconsistencies in the answer, and proceeded. I didn't quite understand the reason behind the same; an explanation would be highly appreciated.

(p.s this is my first post, and I'm not proficient at MathJax so kindly excuse me)

Sumanta
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  • Integrate x between 0 and $\pi$ and between 0 and $\frac{\pi}{2}$. Now substitute $x = sin(t)$ as a change of variables and repeat each integral. What do you notice? – Paul Jan 07 '22 at 17:20
  • @Paul - since $\sin t$ never reaches $\frac \pi 2$, much less $\pi$, you cannot perform the same integrals after substituting $x = \sin t$. – Paul Sinclair Jan 08 '22 at 14:36
  • Oops! Well there is one problem straight away :) Don't drunk comment kids... – Paul Jan 08 '22 at 14:49

1 Answers1

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Your teacher is mistaken. Reversals in the direction of the substitution function take care of themselves.

For a simple explanation, allow me to assume $g$ has only a finite number of turn-arounds. So if you are integrating over the interval $[a,b]$, there are points $a = a_0 < a_1 < a_2 < \dots < a_n = b$, such that $g$ is monotonic on each subinterval $[a_{i-1}, a_i]$ for $i = 1, \dots , n$.

To integrate $\int_a^b f(g(t))g'(t)\,dt$ (substitution always involves an integration of this form), first note that

$$\int_a^b f(g(t))g'(t)\,dt = \int_{a_0}^{a_1} f(g(t))g'(t)\,dt + \int_{a_1}^{a_2} f(g(t))g'(t)\,dt + \cdots + \int_{a_{n-1}}^{a_n} f(g(t))g'(t)\,dt$$

Since $g$ is monotone on each of these intervals, you can make the substitution $x = g(t)$, with $dx = g'(t)dt$ To get $$\int_{a_{i-1}}^{a_i} f(g(t))g'(t)\,dt = \int_{g(a_{i-1})}^{g(a_i)} f(x)\,dx$$ So $$\int_a^b f(g(t))g'(t)\,dt = \int_{g(a_0)}^{g(a_1)} f(x)\,dx + \int_{g(a_1)}^{g(a_2)} f(x)\,dx + \cdots + \int_{g(a_{n-1})}^{g(n_i)} f(x)\,dx$$

But $\int_r^sf(x)\,dx + \int_s^tf(x)\,dx = \int_r^tf(x)\,dx$ always, regardless of the order of $r, s,$ and $t$. So $$\int_a^b f(g(t))g'(t)\,dt = \int_{g(a_0)}^{g(a_n)} f(x)\,dx$$ despite $g$ not being monotone overall.

To show this is true more generally requires a dive into the definition of the integral, but it still works.

Paul Sinclair
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