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I am currently reading the An Introduction to Manifolds by Loring W.Tu (2nd edition, pp. 34), and as a novice to differential geometry and topology it is not quite obvious to me why in the union $\bigcup_{p \in U}T_p^*(\mathbb{R}^n)$ all of the sets $T_p^*(\mathbb{R}^n)$ are disjoint?

Namely, let $U$ be an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and denote the cotangent space to $\mathbb{R}^n$ at $p \in \mathbb{R}^n$ by $T_p^*(\mathbb{R}^n)$. Then $T_p^*(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is (by my understanding) the set of all linear mappings from the tangent space $T_p(\mathbb{R}^n)$ to $\mathbb{R}$ at $p$. So far the author has not defined precisely what a tangent space is, but I have understood it to be a vector space of all tangent vectors at a given point $p$, where the space is spanned by partial derivatives of all the basis vectors of the surrounding space: $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}\vert_p$.

With this in mind, does the disjointedness stem from a set theoretical definition of a mapping $f$ being the set of all ordered pairs $(x, f(x))$? If so, then why cannot we have two tangent spaces that are equal for different points $p, q$, if all that matters is the partial derivatives by the spanning vectors of the surrounding space?

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    It is by definition. The tangent bundle $TU$ is by definition the disjoint union of the $T_p \Bbb R^n$ with $p \in U$. – Didier Jan 07 '22 at 10:34
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    I would rather that you define the tangent bundle $T\mathbb R^n$ as the disjoint union of the $T_p(\mathbb R^n)'$s – Surb Jan 07 '22 at 10:35
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    It must be $\coprod T_p^(\mathbb R^n)$ which is the union of ${p}\times T_p^(\mathbb R^n)$. – PtF Jan 07 '22 at 10:48
  • @Didier Could this be a Chicken-or-Egg issue in the book, because the author has not defined tangent bundles or tangent spaces as of page 34? This is presumably because tangent spaces are usually taught with the notion of manifolds, which in turn require a grasp of differential forms, the thing we are talking about. – Epsilon Away Jan 07 '22 at 10:55
  • @EpsilonAway Even if the author did not explicitely define the tangent bundle, they surely consider a disjoint union. If $T_p \Bbb R^n$ has not been defined already, then I don't get why the author is talking about $T_p^*\Bbb R^n$ and their union. – Didier Jan 07 '22 at 11:02
  • use $$\bigsqcup_pT_p^*\mathbb R^n$$ – janmarqz Jan 07 '22 at 14:14

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Unfortunately Tu has not given a precise definition of the tangent space $T_p(\mathbb R^n)$ when he introduced $T^*_p(\mathbb R^n)$ - and this is a source of confusion.

The tangent space $T_pM$ is properly introduced in Chapter 3 "The Tangent Space". Tu defines it as the set of all derivations $d : C^\infty_p(M) \to \mathbb R$. Here $C^\infty_p(M)$ is the algebra of germs of $C^\infty$ real-valued functions at $p \in M$. These algebras are pairwise disjoint for the points $p \in M$, thus also the $T_pM$ are pairwise disjoint and so are their dual spaces.

But let us come back to Tu's preliminary definition of $T_p(\mathbb R^n)$ on p. 10.

In calculus we visualize the tangent space $T_p(\mathbb R^n)$ at $p$ in $\mathbb R^n$ as the vector space of all arrows emanating from $p$. By the correspondence between arrows and column vectors, the vector space $\mathbb R^n$ can be identified with this column space. To distinguish between points and vectors, we write a point in $\mathbb R^n$ as $p = (p_1, . . . , p_n)$ and a vector in the tangent space $T_p(\mathbb R^n)$ as $$v = \left[ \begin{array}{rrr} v_1 \\ . \phantom{.} \\ . \phantom{.} \\ . \phantom{.} \\ v_n \\ \end{array}\right] \phantom{xxx} \text{or} \phantom{xxx} \langle v_1,\ldots,v_n\rangle .$$ ....
Elements of $T_p(\mathbb R^n)$ are called tangent vectors (or simply vectors) at $p$ in $\mathbb R^n$ . We sometimes drop the parentheses and write $T_p\mathbb R^n$ for $T_p(\mathbb R^n)$.

To be honest, this is extremely unclear. Does he mean $T_p(\mathbb R^n) = \mathbb R^n$, differing perhaps in notation by using tuples and column vectors? I do not think so. Tu speaks about the vector space of all arrows emanating from $p$, thus it should be interpreted as $T_p(\mathbb R^n) = \{ (p,v) \mid v \in \mathbb R^n \} = \{p\} \times \mathbb R^n$. These are again pairwise disjoint and so are their dual spaces.

Note that Tu explains on p. 11 that tangent vectors $v$ give us directional derivatives $D_v$ which prepares the abstract definition in Chapter 3.

You may like to have a look also at

How Can the Vector Space $\mathbb{R}^n$ be identified with the Column space

Directional derivatives at $P$ are all derivations at $P$

Proof of Isomorphism between Tangent Space and the Vector Space of all Derivations

Why is the tangent bundle defined using a disjoint union?

Paul Frost
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  • Is it a convention or a generally known definition that the vector space of all arrows emanating from $p$, or $T_p(\mathbb{R}^n)$, is equal to ${p} \times \mathbb{R}^n$? – Epsilon Away Jan 07 '22 at 14:29
  • @EpsilonAway No, it is just my interpretation. But I think that an arrow emanating from $p$ is described by two pieces of information: The point $p$ and the vector $v$. – Paul Frost Jan 07 '22 at 23:42
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Partial derivatives are by nature a (very) local object, i.e. saying something about the limit of the difference quotient towards a point $p$. On a level of manifolds $M$, the tangent space $T_pM$ tells you, colloquially, in which direction you need to go to stay on the manifold and this may differ from point to point. Also since $T_pM$ is an 'abstract' vector space, which is not naturally embedded in $\mathbb{R}^n$, there is no direct way of comparing different tangent spaces. Both are reasons to define the tangent bundle $TM$ as disjoint union of tangent spaces.

$\mathbb{R}^n$ in that regard is a less furtunate example towards all arguments. We have a globally comparable way of applying partial derivates, at every point in $\mathbb{R}^n$ one may go into 'every direction' and the tangent space is due to $\mathbb{R}^n$ being a vector space naturally embedded in $\mathbb{R}^n$ which makes tangent spaces at different points comparable.

dennis_s
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