I am currently reading the An Introduction to Manifolds by Loring W.Tu (2nd edition, pp. 34), and as a novice to differential geometry and topology it is not quite obvious to me why in the union $\bigcup_{p \in U}T_p^*(\mathbb{R}^n)$ all of the sets $T_p^*(\mathbb{R}^n)$ are disjoint?
Namely, let $U$ be an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and denote the cotangent space to $\mathbb{R}^n$ at $p \in \mathbb{R}^n$ by $T_p^*(\mathbb{R}^n)$. Then $T_p^*(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is (by my understanding) the set of all linear mappings from the tangent space $T_p(\mathbb{R}^n)$ to $\mathbb{R}$ at $p$. So far the author has not defined precisely what a tangent space is, but I have understood it to be a vector space of all tangent vectors at a given point $p$, where the space is spanned by partial derivatives of all the basis vectors of the surrounding space: $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}\vert_p$.
With this in mind, does the disjointedness stem from a set theoretical definition of a mapping $f$ being the set of all ordered pairs $(x, f(x))$? If so, then why cannot we have two tangent spaces that are equal for different points $p, q$, if all that matters is the partial derivatives by the spanning vectors of the surrounding space?