1

We have seen in class that if we fix a group $G$ and a set $X$, to give an action of $G$ on $X$ is equivalent to give a morphism of groups from $G$ to the group $\text{Bij}(X,X)$ of all bijections from $X$ to itself.

I mean that this is nice in some way, but I don't see where this can be useful, so I know how to go from one side to the other but could someone maybe give me an example where this can be used? Maybe it would be helpful to start with an "easy" one since it will be the first example I have seen about this statement.

Thanks for your help.

Alp Uzman
  • 10,742
user123234
  • 2,885

1 Answers1

0

From the syntactic point of view, the difference between the $G\times X\to X$ formalism and the $G\to\text{Bij}(X)$ formalism is that the former is often more convenient to describe analytical properties (e.g., assuming further that $G$ and $X$ are topological objects, that the action is continuous, or differentiable if a smooth structure is available), whereas the latter is more convenient to describe algebraic properties (e.g. consider writing the axioms for a group action using $G\times X\to X$ instead of simply saying that one has a group homomorphism $G\to\text{Bij}(X)$). As an example to $X$ having further algebraic structure and the latter formalism being more useful, consider $X$ to be a vector space, and $G$ acting by linear maps. Simply saying that one has a group homomorphism $G\to \text{GL}(X)$ is sufficient to describe this situation. Of course in considering $\text{GL}(X)$ and what it means to have a group homomorphism into $\text{GL}(X)$ one eventually again resorts to the lengthy descriptions, so eventually the difference is a matter of packaging.

See also the discussions at How a group represents the passage of time? and What does a local flow tell us that an integral curve does not? for further details along these lines and more specific examples.

Alp Uzman
  • 10,742