I'm trying to show this equivalence of different formulation of continuity. Could you have a check on my proof?
Let $(X, \tau_X)$ and $(Y, \tau_Y)$ be topological spaces and $f:X \to Y$ be continuous, i.e., $f^{-1} (O) \in \tau_X$ for all $O \in \tau_Y$. Then $f$ is continuous if and only if, $f(x_d) \to f(x)$ where $(x_d)_{d \in D}$ is a net such that $x_d \to x$.
Lemma: Let $A \subseteq X$. Then $\overline A$ is the set of limits of convergent nets with values in $A$. [A proof is provided here]
Proof: Assume that $f$ is continuous and $(x_d)_{d \in D}$ is a net in $X$ such that $x_d \to x$. Let $y := f(x)$ and $U$ is a neighborhood of $y$. Let $V := f^{-1} (U)$. Then $V$ is a neighborhood of $x$ due to the continuity of $f$. Then there is $d_V \in D$ such that $x_d \in V$ for all $d \ge d_V$. This implies $f(x_d) \in U$ for all $d \ge d_V$. Hence $f(x_d) \to y=f(x)$.
Conversely, let $U$ be closed in $Y$ and $V := f^{-1} (U)$. Let $(x_d)_{d\in D}$ be a net in $V$ such that $x_D \to x$. We want to prove $x \in V$. Let $y_d := f(x_d)$. Then $(y_d)$ is a net in $U$ such that $y_d \to y:=f(x) \in Y$. By our lemma, $y\in \overline U$. Because $U$ is closed, $U =\overline U$ and thus $y \in U$. Hence $x \in f^{-1}(y) \subseteq V$. As such, $V$ is closed.