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Is there any way to convert a number that is represented in base 2 directly to base 3? Or do we need to always convert to base 10 first in order to get to base 3?

Bill Dubuque
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ludicrous
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    You can convert directly in the same way that you convert from base $10$. Of course, most people aren't familiar with long division in other bases but there's nothing all that different about it. – lulu Dec 26 '21 at 17:05

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