I'm learning modular arithmetic right now and having a small hang-up in the application of the definition of a congruence.
The book states that a congruence $c \equiv d$ (mod $n$) can be written if
- $(c - d) = kn$, i.e., $(c - d)$ is divisible by $n$
The problem I am having arises during the proof of the Chinese Remainder Theorem. Specifically, the line that states Let $x_{1} = 1 - sa = tb$ then we see that:
- $x_{1} \equiv 1$ (mod $a$)
- $x_{1} \equiv 0$ (mod $b$)
Take the first congruence: Wouldn't it be $x_{1} \equiv -1$ (mod $a$) i.e., $a-1$ (mod $a$)?
- Since the expression $x_{1} = 1 -sa$ can be rewritten as $1 - x_{1} = sa$ and thus we could equate $1 = c$ and $x_{1} = d$ with the definition.
Since I've been writing this I reviewed the rules of congruence and noticed the rule:
- $\forall c,d \in \mathbb{Z_{n}}$, $a \equiv b$ (mod $n$) iff $b \equiv a$ (mod $n$)
- Would this rule be the reason why we can say $x_{1} \equiv 1$ (mod $n$)?
Or would it simply just be the case that if something is divisible by $kn$ then it is also divisible by $-kn$? Hence we could just write the congruence in question as $x_{1} - 1 = -kn$ and have that still apply without having to fiddle around with the $c$ and $d$ from the original definition?