I met these two statements in two different sources and a question came up which I cannot yet explain to myself.
Th1: If $f$ is defined and bounded in the interval $[a,b]$ then it is Riemann-integrable if and only if the set of points on which it is discontinuous has measure zero (i.e. is a null set).
Th2: If $f$ is defined and monotonic in the interval $[a,b]$ then it is Riemann-integrable.
So this made me thinking... If both statements are true, then in the setup of Th2, it must somehow follow that the set of points at which $f$ is discontinuous is a null set (has Lebesgue measure zero). But I can't explain to myself even intuitively why is that. I mean, what is preventing $f$ in the setup of Th2 of having discontinuities at a set of points $S \subset [a,b]$, which has measure greater than zero? This is my question #1.
Also, I need confirmation that both theorems are true, maybe I misread or misunderstood them. But Th2 I found in a book (so it must be reliable), and Th1 I found here (and the author seems to know very well what he's talking about; he has PhD in maths):
https://www.quora.com/What-are-necessary-conditions-for-the-Riemann-integral-to-exist
So I guess both theorems are true indeed, right? This is my question #2.
Finally, I would like to know if Th2 has some analogue in $\mathbb{R}^2$ or in $\mathbb{R}^3$ i.e. when we have a function $f$ of 2 or 3 variables. So this is my question #3 here. I do know that Th1 has analogues in $\mathbb{R}^2$ or in $\mathbb{R}^3$ but what about Th2?
Question 3 is kind of a side question. I am mostly interested in questions 1) and 2).
I've been thinking on all this in the last 2-3 days, and finally I decided to ask here since it seems I can't put together myself the pieces of the puzzle.