I am tasked to find a proof of $\vdash \exists x (\phi \implies \forall x \phi)$ by using the Hilbert axioms. I've been trying for about 2 hours. I tried using the results from the previous parts of the exercise below. I am also allowed to use substitution instances of tautologies (i.e $\vdash p \implies p$ implies $\vdash \phi \implies \phi$ where $p$ is a propsitional variable and $\phi$ is a first-order formula), that $\exists x$ is defined as $\neg \forall x \neg$, and the standard meta-theorems like proof by contradiction.
Basically I've tried to work backwards:
$$\vdash \exists x (\phi \implies \forall x \phi)$$ $$\vdash \forall x (\phi \implies \forall x \phi)$$ $$\vdash (\phi \implies \forall x \phi)$$
This last step seems impossible to prove, as it would have me show that if a property is true for some x then it is true for all $x$ (obviously not true if $\phi$ is taken to be "is even")
Similarly I tried invoking part (c)
$$\vdash \exists x (\phi \implies \forall x \phi)$$
$$\vdash \forall x (\phi \implies \forall x \phi)$$
$$\vdash (\exists x \phi \implies \forall x \phi) \implies \forall x(\phi \implies \forall x \phi)$$
Again, this would require to show that if a propery is true for some x then it is true for all $x$.
The only other way to introduce an $\exists$ as the "main connective" is by (a). But that seems to go nowhere as well.