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I know that if the derivative of a function is positive on $\left(a,b\right)$ then that function is increasing on $\left(a,b\right)$ . However not sure if the opposite always holds. Here is my approach:

Let $f\left(x\right)$ monotone increasing on $\left(a,b\right)$ Then for every $a_1$ and $b_1$ of $\left(a,b\right)$ such that if $a_1<b_1$, it holds that $f\left(a_1\right)<f\left(b_1\right)$,

So we have $$ \frac{f\left(b_1\:\right)-f\left(a_1\right)}{b_1-a_1}>0\:$$

From Langranges' theorem we have that there exists a $c$ in $\left(a_1,b_1\right)$ such that

$$ f'\left(c\right)\:=\:\frac{f\left(b_1\:\right)-f\left(a_1\right)}{b_1-a_1}>0\: $$ This means that for every subsegment of $\left(a,b\right)$, we can find a $c$, such that it's derivative at $c$ is positive. Meaning that the derivative of $f(x)$ on $\left(a,b\right)$ is always positive for every point in $\left(a,b\right)$.

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A function strictly increasing need not have a (strictly) positive derivative at all points. For instance $f(x)=x^3$ is monotonically (strictly) increasing on the interval $(-1,1)$, but the derivative is not always positive on that interval: Namely: $f'(0)=0$.

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