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Theorem: If a function f defined on a measurable set D ⊂ R is continuous almost everywhere then f is measurable.

Corollary: Monotonic functions defined on measurable sets are measurable.

The corollary was given as corollary of the above theorem. That means any monotonic function defined on a measurable set is continuous almost everywhere.

I saw the proofs with domain as intervals only. But here the domain is measurable which is larger class containing intervals. How to prove that monotonic function defined on a measurable set will not be continuous on a measurable set with measure 0 only?
Any help will be of great help!

Esha
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