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Does there exist a complete metric $d$ on $\Bbb{R}$ which induces the manifold topology that has an orientation-preserving isometry group strictly larger than / incomparable to $(\Bbb{R},+)$?
I want to know how well the symmetry of a manifold (with as few as possible structures) can be approached by more rigid structures, like smooth (therefore Riemann) structures. $\Bbb{R}$ is chosen because of its simplicity. A further question (and still unanswered) is asked here.

Zerox
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    @DonThousand $d: \Bbb{R} \times \Bbb{R} \rightarrow \Bbb{R}^{\ge 0}$ is a continuous function, with respect to the manifold topology on $\Bbb{R}$. – Zerox Nov 26 '21 at 16:51
  • For any point $p \in \mathbb{R}$ and distance $s$ there exists at most one point $r$ to the left of $p$ such that $d(p,r) = s$. So if an orientation-preserving isometry $i$ moves a given point $p$ to $p_{1}$ , then it is forced to move all points to the left (or right) of $p$ in a rigid way such as to maintain the distances ie $d(r,p) = d(i(r), i(p) )$. So the isometry is completely determined by the motion of a single point on $\mathbb{R}$. Thus the space of isometries can be no larger than $\mathbb{R}$. – user3257842 Nov 26 '21 at 16:59
  • Of course, this is based on the uniqueness of distance. If for example you have two different points to the left of $p$ that are the same metric distance from $p$, the proof fails. It all depends on how strict your definition of a metric is. – user3257842 Nov 26 '21 at 17:03
  • @user3257842 I can't prove there is at most one point to the left of $p$, that is the question. – Zerox Nov 26 '21 at 17:03
  • @user3257842 I don't think the definition of "metric" involves uniqueness. – Zerox Nov 26 '21 at 17:04
  • If you have $d(a,b) = 1$ for all possible $a$ and $b$, then any bijective function on $\mathbb{R}$ would be an isometry. So I'm guessing you want at least some constraints on the metric $d$ to prevent this. – user3257842 Nov 26 '21 at 17:15
  • @user3257842 I said the metric is continuous, please look carefully. – Zerox Nov 26 '21 at 17:16
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    FWIW, if we embed the reals as a tightly-wound helix with large radius, say$$t\mapsto(R\cos t,R\sin t, kt)$$with $0 < k \ll1 \ll R$, then in the induced chordal metric there do exist multiple points to the left of $p$ at the same distance from $p$. The orientation-preserving isometry group is the additive group of reals, however, so this type of example doesn't settle the question. (Apropos of nothing, the metric similarly induced by an irrational winding on a flat torus has some strange properties, such as $\liminf\limits_{r\to\infty} d(0, r) = 0$.) – Andrew D. Hwang Nov 26 '21 at 19:28
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    If your metric is not just continuous but metrizes the standard topology on ${\mathbb R}$ and its (orientation-preserving) isometry group contains a subgroup isomorphic to ${\mathbb R}$, then it equals ${\mathbb R}$. Incidentally, if your metric is merely continuous, its isometries need not be homeomorphisms of the standard topology, so I am not sure what "orientation-preserving" would mean. Please, clarify. – Moishe Kohan Nov 27 '21 at 05:38
  • @MoisheKohan I have clarified my expression now. Can you explain why the orientation-preserving isometry group equals $(\Bbb{R},+)$ if it contains $(\Bbb{R},+)$? – Zerox Nov 27 '21 at 14:16
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    This question should have a simple answer for the special class of rectifiable metrics, i.e. metrics for which the length of every segment is finite, because the "length metric" is isometric to an (open) subinterval of $\mathbb R$, and so with completeness one would get $\mathbb R$ on the nose. Nonrectifiable metrics would be more challenging, e.g. pieces of the Koch snowflake. Perhaps one should somehow lift the metric to the universal cover of the Koch snowflake in order to get a complete metric. – Lee Mosher Nov 27 '21 at 15:04
  • @LeeMosher A "rectifiable metric space" need not be isometric to an open interval of $\Bbb{R}$, e.g. the chordal metric of a tightly-wound helix with large radius, stated by the comment of Andrew D. Hwang. – Zerox Nov 27 '21 at 15:12
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    @Zerox: Yes, that's what I meant by the "length metric". To each given rectifiable metric there is an associated length metric, obtained by minimizing (well, infimizing) path length. This length metric inherits all of the isometries of the given rectifiable metric (because the passage from rectifiable metric to length metric is functorial). – Lee Mosher Nov 27 '21 at 15:51
  • Given the revision, I will add a proof later on. – Moishe Kohan Nov 27 '21 at 20:32

1 Answers1

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First, some background. This type of questions belongs to the area of mathematics known an "Topological transformation groups." This area was quite popular until 1960s and its stems from Hilbert's 5th problem about characterization of Lie groups. The best book on the subject still is the one originally published in 1955:

Montgomery, Deane; Zippin, Leo, Topological transformation groups, Mineola, NY: Dover Publications (ISBN 978-0-486-82449-9). xi, 289 p. (2018). ZBL1418.57024.

The hardest open problem in the theory is known as Hilbert-Smith Conjecture (HSC):

Suppose that $G$ is a (Hausdorff) locally compact topological group acting continuously and effectively on a topological manifold $M$. Then $G$ isomorphic (as a topological group) to a Lie group.

In view of the structural results on locally compact groups, this reduces to the case when $G$ is a compact group. A continuous action of $G$ on $M$ then has an invariant metric which metrizes the standard topology of $M$. Thus, the assumption of existence of an invariant metric does not make any difference in this setting.

The best (to my knowledge) background discussion of HSC can be found in Terry Tao's blog, here. The problem is known to reduce to the one when $G$ is compact and isomorphic (as a topological group) to the group of $p$-adic integers (for various values of $p$).

HSC is known to hold if $M$ is 1-dimensional (see below) and 2-dimensional (see the above book). Three-dimensional case was settled relatively recently (2013), by John Pardon.

The conjecture is wide-open in dimensions $\ge 4$.

Let me now address your question (I will not be using the known result about HSC but give a direct proof). Suppose that $G$ is the isometry group of a metric $d$ on the real line $L$, as in your question, $G_+<G$ is the subgroup of orientation-preserving isometries. I will equip $G$ with the topology of uniform convergence on compacts (equivalently, compact-open topology). Then an application of a version of the Arzela-Ascoli theorem implies that $G$ is locally-compact. The stabilizer $G_x< G$ of any point $x\in L$ is a compact subgroup of $G$.

The following lemma is elementary:

Lemma 1. Suppose that $H< G$ is a subgroup and $x$ is a point in $L$. Then the orbit $Hx$ is either discrete (i.e. is a discrete when equipped with the subspace topology) or contains $x$ in its closure.

Lemma 2. The subgroup $G_+< G$ acts freely on $L$.

Proof. Suppose that a point $x\in L$ has nontrivial stabilizer in $G_+$, let $g$ be a nontrivial element of this stabilizer. Then the subgroup $H$ generated by $g$ is relatively compact. Let $F\subset L$ denote the fixed-point set of $g$; then $F\ne L$, since $g\ne 1_G$. Pick a complementary component $J$ of $F$ in $L$. Then, after replacing $g$ with $g^{-1}$ if necessary, for each $y\in J$ we have $$ g(y)> y. $$ But then the sequence of iterates $(g^n(y))_{n\in {\mathbb N}}$ cannot converge to $y$, contradicting Lemma 1. qed

Suppose now that $G$ contains a connected nontrivial subgroup $H$, e.g. one isomorphic to ${\mathbb R}$ as in your question.

Lemma 3. Under the above assumption, $G_+=H$.

Proof. Take any $x\in L$ and consider the orbit map $$ o_x: G_+\to L, o_x(g)=g(x). $$ Lemma 2 implies that this map is a continuous injective map. The image $o_x(H)$ is connected (since $H$ is), hence, is an open interval $J\subset L$. It suffices to prove that $J=L$. Suppose not. Then, since $H$ is connected, it cannot switch the boundary points of $J$ (if there are two), hence, has to fix both boundary points of $J$, contradicting Lemma 1.

Thus, $H$ acts transitively on $L$. Thus, in view of Lemma 1, the action of $G_+$ on $L$ is simply-transitive, which implies that $G_+=H$. qed

Corollary 1. If $G_+$ contains a subgroup $H$ isomorphic to ${\mathbb R}$ as a topological group, then $G_+=H$.

One actually can do better:

Lemma 4. Suppose that $G$ contains an uncountable closed subgroup $H$. Then $H$ acts transitively on $L$.

Proof. Since $G_+$ acts on $L$ isometrically, the action is also proper, implying that each orbit map $o_x: H\to L$ has closed image $Hx\subset L$. Suppose that the image is not equal to $L$. Since we assumed that $H$ is uncountable, so is its orbit $Hx\subset L$. Then the orbit $Hx$ contains at least one point which is a boundary point of one of the arcs which are components of $L\setminus Hx$ and also one point which is not such a boundary point. This contradicts transitivity of the action of $H$ on the orbit $Hx$. qed

Corollary 2. The subgroup $H$ as in Lemma 4 is homeomorphic to ${\mathbb R}$.

Proof. Since the action of $H$ on $L$ is proper, the orbit map $o_x: H\to L$ is a homeomorphism. qed

Now, I will simply quote answers to this question to conclude that a subgroup $H$ as in Corollary 2 is isomorphic to ${\mathbb R}$ as a topological group. This proves:

Theorem. Let $(L,d)$ is a metric space homeomorphic to ${\mathbb R}$, $G$ is the isometry group of $(L,d)$ and $G_+< G$ is the orientation-preserving subgroup. Then either $G_+$ is at (most countable) or is isomorphic to ${\mathbb R}$ as a topological group.

In fact, in the countable case, $G_+$ is either trivial or infinite cyclic. I will leave you a proof as an exercise.

Moishe Kohan
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  • Thanks for your detailed answer! But I have another question: why can we assume that $\mathrm{Iso}(d)$ is locally compact? I have seen this assumption many times elsewhere, but I don't know if this result is proved or just convenient for discussion. – Zerox Nov 29 '21 at 08:43
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    @Zerox: It's not an assumption but a property which follows from the Arzela-Ascoli theorem for locally compact metric spaces, see here. – Moishe Kohan Nov 29 '21 at 09:08
  • If it is reduced to Lie group action in the $3$ dimensional case, then it is closely related to Thurston's geometrization. Does this mean that non-geometrizable compact $3$-manifolds can only have finite group effective action? – Zerox Nov 29 '21 at 14:13
  • @Zerox: I am not sure what you mean, but maybe you are asking the following: "Suppose that $M$ is a closed connected 3-manifold and $\pi_1(M)$ acts isometrically and effectively on the real line. Is $M$ geometrizable?" This question indeed has positive answer, moreover, $M$ admits either Euclidean or spherical or $S^2\times R$ geometric structure. In fact, topology of $M$ is even more restricted than that since $\pi_1(M)$ contains a free abelian subgroup of index 2. – Moishe Kohan Nov 29 '21 at 16:48
  • I'm not asking about $\Bbb{R}$, but general $3$-dimensional case (something related to my further question). I wonder if a closed $3$-manifold $M$ cannot be given a global Thurston geometry, how to decide the maximal locally compact group acting faithfully on $M$. Must them be finite? – Zerox Nov 29 '21 at 17:14
  • @Zerox: I suggest you ask a new question (and I still do not understand what your question in the comment is). Comments are not meant for asking new questions. – Moishe Kohan Nov 29 '21 at 17:17
  • I asked a new question to explain what I want to know. – Zerox Nov 29 '21 at 21:20