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The following setup provides, I believe, an intuitive understanding of the Fundamental Theorem Of Calculus:

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(1) $f(x)=y$ is a function defined on the interval going from $x=a$ to $x=b$ and positive on this interval.

(2) at the infinitesimal level , for a small increment of $x$ , $dx$ , every increment of the function $\Delta y $ is $dy= f'(x)dx$ ( because $f'(x)=dy/dx$).

(3) for each value of $x$ in the interval considered, there is an infinitely small triangle, located at $(x, f(x))$, with base $dx$ and height $dy$.

(4) the sum of these heights, projected horizontally on the line passing through $(b, 0)$ and $(b, f(b))$ amounts to the vertival segment having $(b, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ as endpoints, that is, amounts to the height of function $f$ at $x=b$ minus its height at $x=a$, meaning that

$ \int_a^b dy = \int_a^b f'(x)dx = f(b)-f(a)$.

(5) This results says that the sum of the differentals of a function on an interval is equal to the increment of this function. If we call $F(x)=y $ the original function, $f$ its derivative , and denote by $f(x)dx$ its differential, we get the $FTC$ in its ordinary aspect ( Evaluation Theorem version ) :

$ \int_a^b dy = \int_a^b f(x)dx = F(b)-F(a)$

What seems interesting in this interpretation of the $FTC$ is that no use is made of the idea of the " area below the curve".

My questions :

(1) is it correct that the integral can de interpreted as a sum of differentials?

(2) is there a way to prove the $FTC$ in its " differential " version , that is, to prove that the sum of the differentials from $a$ to $b$ is equal to the final height of the function ( at $b$ )minus the original height of the function ( at $a$) ?

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    I would give (1) a "yes", as long as we're talking about intuition and not aiming for perfect rigor. Your intuitive understanding is good and very clear, even if it's not perfectly rigorous. I like to summarize the argument as "the total change is the sum of all the little changes." Calculus was probably discovered with intuitive reasoning like this and then made rigorous later. I explained how to convert this intuitive argument into a rigorous proof here: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1537836/40119 (The key idea is to make use of the mean value theorem.) – littleO Nov 06 '21 at 09:13
  • @littleO. - Tanks for the link to your previous answer. – Vince Vickler Nov 06 '21 at 09:27

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