Is statement
$$ lcm(ax, ay) = a *lcm(x,y) $$
true? (assuming all variables are positive integers)
I would say yes, but I can't find any confirmation or counter-example.
Is statement
$$ lcm(ax, ay) = a *lcm(x,y) $$
true? (assuming all variables are positive integers)
I would say yes, but I can't find any confirmation or counter-example.
It is true.
$$\text{lcm}(ax,ay)=\frac{|a^2xy|}{\text{gcd}(ax,ay)}.$$
Since $a,x,y \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$ and $\text{gcd}(ax,ay)=a\cdot\text{gcd}(x,y)$,
$$=\frac{a^{2}xy}{a\cdot\text{gcd}(x,y)}=a\cdot\frac{xy}{\text{gcd}(x,y)}=a\cdot\text{lcm}(x,y).$$
Therefore, for $a,x,y \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$, $\text{lcm}(ax,ay)=a\cdot\text{lcm}(x,y)$.