Under what circumstances does the existence of the iterated limit $\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \left(\lim\limits_{y \to \infty}\ a_{x,y} \right)$ imply the existence of the double limit $\lim\limits_{(x,y) \to (\infty,\infty)} a_{x,y}$?
Asked
Active
Viewed 1,063 times
2
-
For sequences, see this previous question. See also the Moore-Osgood Theorem. – Arturo Magidin Jun 03 '11 at 02:04